what physiological reaction happens to the body with the fight or flight response
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ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1

1. What physiological reaction occurs in the body with the 'Fight or flight' response?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The 'fight or flight' response is a primal physiological reaction that prepares the body to respond to a perceived threat or danger. This response triggers an increase in heart rate to pump more blood to the muscles and vital organs, preparing the body for action. Choice B, 'Constricted pupils,' is part of the 'fight or flight' response as well, as it helps improve focus and vision. Choice C, 'Decreased blood pressure,' is incorrect because blood pressure typically increases to ensure adequate circulation during the 'fight or flight' response. Choice D, 'Decreased heart rate,' is incorrect as the heart rate increases to supply more oxygen and nutrients to the body during times of stress.

2. Which of the following is a characteristic of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), which causes AIDS?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. HIV is a retrovirus that infects T cells and leads to the gradual destruction of the immune system. Choice A is incorrect because HIV infects T cells primarily, not just B cells. Choice C is incorrect because HIV infection requires host cell receptors for entry. Choice D is incorrect because cell death after HIV infection is not immediate; instead, the virus gradually weakens the immune system over time.

3. A patient is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for the treatment of endometriosis. What should the nurse include in the patient teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and effectiveness. This is crucial for the drug to work optimally. Choice A is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone acetate does not necessarily need to be taken with food to prevent nausea. Choice C is not directly related to the medication's administration and is not a common teaching point for this drug. Choice D is incorrect as discontinuing the medication abruptly can lead to adverse effects and is not recommended without consulting a healthcare provider.

4. A staff member asks what leukocytosis means. How should the nurse respond? Leukocytosis can be defined as:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Leukocytosis refers to an abnormally high leukocyte count. This condition is characterized by an elevated number of white blood cells in the bloodstream. Choice A is incorrect because leukocytosis does not refer to a normal leukocyte count. Choice C is incorrect as leukocytosis is not related to a low leukocyte count. Choice D is incorrect as leukopenia is the opposite of leukocytosis, indicating a low white blood cell count.

5. A patient with severe peripheral vascular disease has developed signs of dry gangrene on the great toe of one foot. Which of the following pathophysiologic processes most likely contributed to this diagnosis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Impaired arterial blood supply. Dry gangrene is typically caused by impaired arterial blood supply, leading to tissue death without bacterial infection. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Inappropriate activation of apoptosis is not a common cause of dry gangrene. Bacterial invasion usually leads to wet gangrene, not dry gangrene. Metaplastic cellular changes are not directly associated with the development of dry gangrene.

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