ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1
1. What physiological reaction occurs in the body with the 'Fight or flight' response?
- A. Increased heart rate
- B. Constricted pupils
- C. Decreased blood pressure
- D. Decreased heart rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The 'fight or flight' response is a primal physiological reaction that prepares the body to respond to a perceived threat or danger. This response triggers an increase in heart rate to pump more blood to the muscles and vital organs, preparing the body for action. Choice B, 'Constricted pupils,' is part of the 'fight or flight' response as well, as it helps improve focus and vision. Choice C, 'Decreased blood pressure,' is incorrect because blood pressure typically increases to ensure adequate circulation during the 'fight or flight' response. Choice D, 'Decreased heart rate,' is incorrect as the heart rate increases to supply more oxygen and nutrients to the body during times of stress.
2. Which of the following correctly identifies the plasma protein inflammatory mediator systems?
- A. Phagocytic, interferon, and complement systems.
- B. Complement, fibrinolytic, and clotting systems.
- C. Complement, clotting, and kinin systems.
- D. Complement, clotting, and acute phase reactant systems.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Complement, clotting, and kinin systems. These are the three main plasma protein inflammatory mediator systems. The complement system helps in inflammation and immune responses, the clotting system is involved in blood coagulation, and the kinin system regulates inflammation and blood pressure. Choice A is incorrect because interferon is not part of the plasma protein inflammatory mediator systems. Choice B is incorrect because the fibrinolytic system is not a primary inflammatory mediator system. Choice D is incorrect because acute phase reactants are not part of the plasma protein inflammatory mediator systems.
3. A patient is prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What is a key contraindication that the nurse should review with the patient?
- A. History of hypertension
- B. Use of nitrates
- C. Use of antihypertensive medications
- D. History of peptic ulcer disease
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Use of nitrates.' Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and sildenafil both act as vasodilators, and their combined use can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because having a history of hypertension, using antihypertensive medications, or having a history of peptic ulcer disease are not key contraindications for sildenafil use.
4. Which pathophysiologic process causes the decreased glomerular filtration rate in a patient with acute glomerulonephritis?
- A. Decreased renal-induced constriction of the renal arteries
- B. Immune complex deposition, increased capillary permeability, and cellular proliferation
- C. Necrosis of 70% or more of the nephrons secondary to increased kidney interstitial hydrostatic pressure
- D. Scar tissue formation throughout the proximal convoluted tubule secondary to toxin-induced collagen synthesis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Immune complex deposition, increased capillary permeability, and cellular proliferation. In acute glomerulonephritis, immune complexes deposit in the glomerulus, leading to inflammation, increased capillary permeability, and cellular proliferation. These processes collectively reduce the glomerular filtration rate. Choices A, C, and D do not accurately describe the pathophysiologic process in acute glomerulonephritis. Decreased renal-induced constriction of the renal arteries, necrosis of nephrons due to increased kidney interstitial hydrostatic pressure, and scar tissue formation in the proximal convoluted tubule are not the primary mechanisms responsible for the decreased filtration rate in this condition.
5. A patient is receiving oral nystatin suspension for a fungal infection of the mouth. Which of the following adverse effects is most likely to be experienced with this form of nystatin?
- A. Local irritation
- B. Burning
- C. Nausea
- D. Urinary urgency
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Local irritation. When using oral nystatin suspension for a fungal infection of the mouth, local irritation is the most likely adverse effect that a patient may experience. Nystatin is generally well-tolerated, but some patients may develop local irritation, such as mouth or throat irritation. Choices B, C, and D are less likely adverse effects of oral nystatin suspension. Burning, nausea, and urinary urgency are not commonly associated with nystatin use for a fungal infection of the mouth.
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