Nursing Elites

1. A client with multiple sclerosis (MS) is experiencing a relapse. Which of the following factors is most likely contributing to the relapse?

• A. Taking an over-the-counter multivitamin
• B. Experiencing high levels of emotional stress
• C. Getting a flu shot
• D. Engaging in strenuous physical activity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Emotional stress can trigger a relapse in multiple sclerosis by exacerbating symptoms. While taking an over-the-counter multivitamin and getting a flu shot are generally safe, they are not typically known to trigger MS relapses. Engaging in strenuous physical activity, if done carefully, can actually have benefits for individuals with MS by improving strength and mobility, so it is less likely to be the cause of a relapse.

2. During a well-child checkup, a mother tells Nurse Rio about a recent situation in which her child needed to be disciplined by her husband. The child was slapped in the face for not getting her husband breakfast on Saturday, despite being told on Thursday never to prepare food for him. Nurse Rio analyzes the family system and concludes it is dysfunctional. All of the following factors contribute to this dysfunction except:

• A. Conflictual relationships between parents.
• B. Inconsistent communication patterns.
• C. Rigid, authoritarian roles.
• D. Use of violence to establish control.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a dysfunctional family system, conflictual relationships, inconsistent communication patterns, and the use of violence to establish control are factors contributing to dysfunction. However, rigid, authoritarian roles, though also dysfunctional, are not directly linked to the use of violence for control.

3. A 17-year-old woman has come to the clinic requesting emergency contraception after having unprotected sex 24 hours ago. What medication is the clinician most likely to prescribe?

• A. Levonorgestrel (Plan B)
• B. Mifepristone (RU-486)
• C. Ulipristal acetate (ella)
• D. Estradiol (Estrace)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Levonorgestrel (Plan B). Levonorgestrel is the most commonly prescribed medication for emergency contraception within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse. It is effective when taken within 72 hours after intercourse, with better efficacy the sooner it is taken. Choice B, Mifepristone (RU-486), is not indicated for emergency contraception but is used for medical abortion. Choice C, Ulipristal acetate (ella), is another option for emergency contraception that is effective up to 120 hours after unprotected intercourse. Choice D, Estradiol (Estrace), is not used for emergency contraception.

4. A male patient is receiving androgen therapy for hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this therapy?

• A. Increased risk of bone fractures
• B. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
• C. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
• D. Increased risk of prostate cancer

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Androgen therapy can lead to an increased risk of cardiovascular events like heart attacks and strokes, especially in older patients. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues is essential during this therapy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because androgen therapy is not typically associated with an increased risk of bone fractures, liver dysfunction, or prostate cancer.

5. A patient is administered a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor in combination with a nonnucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor. What is the main rationale for administering these medications together?

• A. They improve treatment adherence.
• B. They reduce the duration of illness.
• C. They exhibit synergistic antiviral effects.
• D. They prevent opportunistic infections.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The main rationale for administering a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor in combination with a nonnucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor is that they exhibit synergistic antiviral effects when used together. This combination enhances their antiviral activity against HIV by targeting different steps in the viral replication cycle. Choice A is incorrect because the rationale for combining these medications is based on their antiviral effects, not treatment adherence. Choice B is incorrect because the primary purpose of combination therapy is not to reduce the duration of illness but to improve treatment efficacy. Choice D is incorrect as the main focus of this combination is not on preventing opportunistic infections but on directly targeting the HIV virus.

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