ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. What is the priority intervention for a patient with a severe allergic reaction?
- A. Administer epinephrine
- B. Administer corticosteroids
- C. Administer oxygen
- D. Administer antihistamines
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer epinephrine. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for severe allergic reactions because it rapidly reverses the symptoms of anaphylaxis by constricting blood vessels, increasing heart rate, and relaxing airway muscles. Corticosteroids, although helpful to reduce inflammation, are not the priority in the acute management of severe allergic reactions. Oxygen may be needed to support breathing, but it is not the initial priority. Antihistamines are not as effective as epinephrine in treating severe allergic reactions and should not be the first intervention.
2. A client has a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take a tablet every 5 minutes for pain relief, up to three doses.
- B. Take this medication with a glass of water.
- C. Chew the tablet for faster absorption.
- D. Store the tablets in a refrigerator.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Take a tablet every 5 minutes for pain relief, up to three doses.' Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets are used to relieve chest pain or to prevent chest pain before activities known to cause angina. The tablets should be taken every 5 minutes for pain relief, up to three doses, as prescribed. Choice B is incorrect because nitroglycerin sublingual tablets should be placed under the tongue until they dissolve, not taken with water. Choice C is incorrect because nitroglycerin sublingual tablets should not be chewed but placed under the tongue for absorption. Choice D is incorrect because nitroglycerin tablets should be stored in their original container at room temperature away from light and moisture.
3. A client with diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse about managing blood glucose levels. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will eat a snack if my blood glucose level is below 70 mg/dL.
- B. I will take my insulin if my blood glucose level is above 200 mg/dL.
- C. I will check my blood glucose level once a week.
- D. I will take my insulin only when I feel symptoms of hyperglycemia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because consuming a snack when the blood glucose level is below 70 mg/dL helps prevent hypoglycemia in clients with diabetes mellitus. Choice B is incorrect because taking insulin when blood glucose is high (above 200 mg/dL) helps manage hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia. Choice C is incorrect as checking blood glucose levels once a week is insufficient for proper diabetes management, which typically requires more frequent monitoring. Choice D is incorrect because waiting for symptoms of hyperglycemia to take insulin can lead to uncontrolled blood glucose levels.
4. A nurse is teaching a client about home care following cataract surgery. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
- A. You should wear a protective eye shield while sleeping.
- B. You should avoid bending over to pick things up.
- C. You should apply pressure to your eye if you feel pain.
- D. You should resume wearing your regular glasses immediately.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'You should wear a protective eye shield while sleeping.' After cataract surgery, wearing a protective eye shield while sleeping is crucial to prevent accidental injury to the eye. Choice B is incorrect because patients should indeed avoid bending over, but it is not the most important instruction among the options provided. Choice C is incorrect because applying pressure to the eye if pain is felt can be harmful and should not be advised. Choice D is incorrect because patients should not resume wearing their regular glasses immediately post cataract surgery; they should wait until their healthcare provider permits.
5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who has liver cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Bilirubin 0.8 mg/dL
- B. Ammonia 35 mcg/dL
- C. Prothrombin time 16 seconds
- D. Albumin 4 g/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In clients with liver cirrhosis, an elevated prothrombin time indicates impaired liver function and decreased production of clotting factors. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not specifically indicate worsening liver cirrhosis. Bilirubin 0.8 mg/dL is normal, ammonia 35 mcg/dL is within the reference range, and albumin 4 g/dL is also within the normal range for this client population.
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