what is the most important assessment for a patient post surgery

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet

1. What is the most important assessment for a patient post-surgery?

A. Monitor vital signs
B. Check surgical site for bleeding
C. Check for abnormal breath sounds
D. Check skin color

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor vital signs post-surgery. Vital signs provide crucial information about a patient's physiological status, helping detect early signs of complications such as shock, bleeding, or infection. Checking the surgical site for bleeding is important but falls secondary to monitoring vital signs, which give a broader overview of the patient's condition. Checking for abnormal breath sounds and skin color are also important assessments, but they are not as immediate and general as monitoring vital signs in detecting various post-surgical complications.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has just returned from surgery and is experiencing acute pain. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

A. Bradycardia.
B. Hypotension.
C. Diaphoresis.
D. Hyperactive bowel sounds.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diaphoresis. Diaphoresis, which is excessive sweating, is a common response to acute pain due to increased sympathetic nervous system activity. Options A and B, Bradycardia and Hypotension, are unlikely findings in a client experiencing acute pain as pain usually triggers an increase in heart rate (tachycardia) and blood pressure. Option D, Hyperactive bowel sounds, is not typically associated with acute pain.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

A. Contractions lasting 80 seconds.
B. FHR baseline 170/min.
C. Early decelerations in the FHR.
D. Temperature 37.4Â°C (99.3Â°F).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. An FHR baseline of 170/min is considered tachycardia, which is above the normal range during labor and requires immediate attention. High FHR can indicate fetal distress or maternal fever. Choice A, contractions lasting 80 seconds, are within normal range for active labor. Choice C, early decelerations in the FHR, are usually benign and do not typically require immediate intervention. Choice D, a temperature of 37.4Â°C (99.3Â°F), is within normal limits.

4. What is the appropriate diet for a patient with chronic kidney disease?

A. Low protein diet
B. High protein diet
C. Low sodium diet
D. Low potassium diet

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A low protein diet is the appropriate choice for a patient with chronic kidney disease because it helps to reduce the buildup of waste products in the body, which the kidneys may struggle to filter out. High protein diets can put extra strain on the kidneys by increasing the workload to eliminate the byproducts of protein metabolism. While low sodium and low potassium diets can also be important for managing certain aspects of kidney disease, the primary focus should be on controlling protein intake to lessen the burden on the kidneys.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory data of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider report?

A. Serum calcium 8.5 mg/dL
B. Blood glucose level 120 mg/dL
C. Serum sodium 138 mEq/L
D. Serum albumin 3.5 g/dL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Serum albumin 3.5 g/dL. A low serum albumin level indicates protein deficiency, which can be a complication of TPN therapy and requires prompt intervention. The other laboratory findings provided (serum calcium 8.5 mg/dL, blood glucose level 120 mg/dL, and serum sodium 138 mEq/L) are within normal ranges and do not specifically indicate complications related to TPN therapy.