Nursing Elites

1. What is the most important assessment for a patient post-surgery?

• A. Monitor vital signs
• B. Check surgical site for bleeding
• C. Check for abnormal breath sounds
• D. Check skin color

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor vital signs post-surgery. Vital signs provide crucial information about a patient's physiological status, helping detect early signs of complications such as shock, bleeding, or infection. Checking the surgical site for bleeding is important but falls secondary to monitoring vital signs, which give a broader overview of the patient's condition. Checking for abnormal breath sounds and skin color are also important assessments, but they are not as immediate and general as monitoring vital signs in detecting various post-surgical complications.

2. A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who reports intimate partner violence. Which of the following interventions is the nurse's priority?

• A. Develop a safety plan with the client.
• B. Refer the client to a community support group.
• C. Determine if the client has any injuries.
• D. Contact the client's family about the incident.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to develop a safety plan with the client. In cases of intimate partner violence, the priority is to ensure the client's immediate safety. While referring the client to a community support group (choice B) and determining if the client has any injuries (choice C) are important interventions, ensuring the client's safety through a safety plan takes precedence. Contacting the client's family about the incident (choice D) may not be appropriate as it can further endanger the client.

3. A client is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?

• A. A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
• B. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula.
• C. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding.
• D. A residual of 65 mL 1 hr post-feeding.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease are at risk for aspiration due to the potential of regurgitation, which can lead to aspiration of stomach contents into the lungs. Choice B (receiving a high-osmolarity formula) can lead to issues like diarrhea or dehydration but is not directly related to aspiration. Choice C (sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding) is actually a preventive measure to reduce the risk of aspiration. Choice D (a residual of 65 mL 1 hr post-feeding) is a concern for delayed gastric emptying but not a direct risk factor for aspiration.

4. Nurses caring for four clients. Which of the following client data should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. A client who has pleurisy and reports pain of 6 on a scale of 0 to 10 when coughing
• B. Client drained a total of 110 mL of serosanguineous fluid from the Jackson Pratt drain within the first 24 hours following surgery
• C. Client who is 4 hours postoperative and has a heart rate of 98 per minute
• D. The client has a prescription for chemotherapy and an absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm3

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The client with chemotherapy and a low neutrophil count is at risk for infection and requires prompt intervention. Reporting this information to the provider is crucial to ensure appropriate monitoring and management to prevent potential complications. Choices A, B, and C do not indicate an immediate risk that requires immediate provider notification. A client reporting pain with pleurisy, a client draining fluid post-surgery, or a client with a heart rate of 98 per minute postoperative are not urgent enough to warrant immediate reporting compared to the client at risk for infection.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report immediately?

• A. White blood cell count of 4,500/mm³
• B. Hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL
• C. Platelet count of 90,000/mm³
• D. Serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A platelet count of 90,000/mm³ indicates thrombocytopenia, which increases the risk of bleeding and requires immediate intervention. Thrombocytopenia can lead to serious bleeding complications, so it is crucial to address this finding promptly. A low white blood cell count (choice A) may indicate neutropenia but is not as immediately life-threatening as severe thrombocytopenia. A hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL (choice B) would require intervention but is not as urgent as addressing a critically low platelet count. A serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L (choice D) is on the lower side of normal but does not pose an immediate risk to the client's safety compared to severe thrombocytopenia.

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