Nursing Elites

1. A registered nurse (RN) is caring for a patient who is one of Jehovah�s Witnesses and has refused a blood transfusion even though her hemoglobin is dangerously low. After providing information about all the alternatives available and risks and benefits of each, the health-care provider allows the patient to determine which course of treatment she would prefer. The RN knows this is an example of which ethical principle?

• A. Autonomy
• B. Nonmaleficence
• C. Beneficence
• D. Distributive justice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: This is an example of the ethical principle of autonomy.

2. Which patient action indicates a good understanding of the nurse�s teaching about the use of an insulin pump?

• A. The patient programs the pump for an insulin bolus after eating
• B. The patient changes the location of the insertion site every week
• C. The patient takes the pump off at bedtime and starts it again each morning.
• D. The patient plans for a diet that is less flexible when using the insulin pump.

Correct answer: A

Rationale:

3. Which of the following best describes the role of an informatics nurse specialist?

• A. Managing electronic health records
• B. Providing technical support
• C. Educating nursing staff
• D. Improving patient care through technology

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An informatics nurse specialist focuses on improving patient care through technology by implementing, optimizing, and leveraging healthcare information systems. While managing electronic health records and providing technical support may be part of their responsibilities, the primary goal is to enhance patient outcomes and healthcare delivery through the strategic use of technology. Educating nursing staff, although important, is typically not the core role of an informatics nurse specialist.

4. The manager of a medical-surgical unit is very task-motivated. Using Fiedler's Contingency Theory, under what circumstances would the manager be most effective?

• A. Only during highly stressful situations.
• B. When there is little to no stress.
• C. Under highly structured situations.
• D. When the situation is loosely structured.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: According to Fiedler's Contingency Theory, task-motivated managers are most effective under highly structured situations. This is because in such environments, where priorities are clear and tasks are well-defined, task-oriented managers can excel in organizing and accomplishing objectives efficiently. Choices A and B are incorrect because the effectiveness of a task-motivated manager is not solely linked to stress levels but rather to the structure of the situation. Choice D is also incorrect as a loosely structured situation would not provide the clarity and direction that a task-motivated manager thrives in.

5. What are the final stages of the conflict process?

• A. Antecedent conditions
• B. Perceived and felt conflict
• C. Suppression and resolution
• D. Conflict behavior

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The final stages of the conflict process involve suppression and resolution. After conflicts have been perceived and felt, individuals and parties typically move towards suppressing the conflict (trying to avoid it) and ultimately resolving it. Antecedent conditions refer to factors that exist before conflict arises and do not represent the final stages. Conflict behavior relates to the actions taken during a conflict rather than its final stages.

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