ATI RN
ATI Pediatrics Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. Which statement best describes the use of activity or task analysis?
- A. A foundational tool in occupational therapy for over a century
- B. A technique used to evaluate motor deficits in pediatrics
- C. Recently applied in some areas of pediatric occupational therapy
- D. A tool used exclusively by occupational therapy practitioners
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'A foundational tool in occupational therapy for over a century.' Activity or task analysis has been a fundamental method in occupational therapy for a long time. It involves breaking down activities or tasks into smaller components to understand the skills required and identify areas of difficulty. This process helps occupational therapists develop effective intervention strategies to improve a client's ability to perform daily activities independently. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because activity or task analysis is not limited to evaluating motor deficits in pediatrics, recently applied only in some areas of pediatric occupational therapy, or exclusively used by occupational therapy practitioners. It is a widely used and established method in the field of occupational therapy.
2. A child is admitted to the hospital for hypercalcemia and is placed on diuretic therapy. Which diuretic would the nurse expect to administer?
- A. Furosemide (Lasix)
- B. Hydrochlorothiazide (Aquazide)
- C. Spironolactone (Aldactone)
- D. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic that acts on the ascending loop of Henle in the kidney to increase calcium excretion. In the setting of hypercalcemia, where there is an elevated level of calcium in the blood, Furosemide can help promote the elimination of excess calcium through the urine, thereby aiding in the management of hypercalcemia.
3. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer ibuprofen 5 mg per kg every 6 hours PRN for temperatures above 38.0 degrees Celsius or 100.5 degrees Fahrenheit to an infant who weighs 17.6 lb. The infant has a temperature of 38.4 degrees Celsius or 101.2 degrees Fahrenheit. Available is ibuprofen liquid 100 mg/5 ml. How many milliliters should the healthcare provider administer to the infant?
- A. 12 ml
- B. 6 ml
- C. 2 ml
- D. 1 ml
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To calculate the correct dosage, first convert the infant's weight to kilograms: 17.6 lb = 8 kg. The prescribed dose is 5 mg/kg, so for an 8 kg infant, the total dose required is 40 mg. Since the available ibuprofen liquid is 100 mg/5 ml, to find out how many milliliters to administer, divide the total dose (40 mg) by the concentration of the liquid (100 mg/5 ml), which equals 2 ml. Therefore, the healthcare provider should administer 2 ml of ibuprofen to the infant.
4. When educating a patient about sildenafil (Viagra), which adverse effect should be a priority for the patient to report to his prescriber?
- A. Flushing
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Hearing loss
- D. Dyspepsia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Hearing loss.' In rare cases, Viagra has been associated with sudden hearing loss, typically in one ear, which can be partial or complete. Any onset of hearing problems while using Viagra should be reported promptly to the prescriber. It is recommended to discontinue the medication if it is used for erectile dysfunction. 'Flushing,' 'Diarrhea,' and 'Dyspepsia' are known adverse effects of Viagra but are generally less serious compared to hearing loss.
5. Which menu choices for a child diagnosed with renal failure and experiencing hyperkalemia indicate the need for further instruction by the nurse?
- A. Carrots and green, leafy vegetables
- B. Spaghetti and meat sauce with breadsticks
- C. Hamburger on a bun and cherry gelatin
- D. Chips, cold cuts, and canned foods
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Carrots and green, leafy vegetables are high in potassium, which should be avoided in hyperkalemia. Therefore, this choice requires further instruction by the nurse to prevent exacerbating the child's condition.
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