ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B with NGN
1. What is the definition of malpractice in the context of professional negligence?
- A. Failure to follow personal standards of care
- B. Failure to act in a reasonable and prudent manner by a professional
- C. Harm caused by a healthcare team due to miscommunication
- D. Failure to document patient care properly
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct definition of malpractice in the context of professional negligence is the failure to act in a reasonable and prudent manner by a professional. This choice is correct because malpractice occurs when a professional does not meet the standard of care expected in their field, leading to harm or injury to the client. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because malpractice is specifically about the failure to meet professional standards of care, rather than personal standards, miscommunication within a healthcare team, or inadequate documentation of patient care.
2. A client is in a seclusion room following violent behavior and continues to display aggressive behavior. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Confront the client about this behavior.
- B. Express sympathy for the client's situation.
- C. Speak assertively to the client.
- D. Stand within 30 cm (1 ft) of the client when speaking with them.
Correct answer: Confront the client about this behavior.
Rationale: When a client in a seclusion room following violent behavior continues to display aggression, it is essential for the nurse to confront the client about this behavior. Confrontation can help set boundaries, address the behavior, and ensure the safety of both the client and the healthcare team. Expressing sympathy (Choice B) may not address the immediate need for behavior management. Speaking assertively (Choice C) can be important but should be coupled with addressing the specific behavior. Standing within close proximity (Choice D) of an aggressive client can escalate the situation and compromise safety, so it is not the appropriate action to take.
3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an IV fluid bolus of 500 mL over 4 hours to a client who is dehydrated. The healthcare professional should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr?
- A. 75 mL/hr.
- B. 100 mL/hr.
- C. 125 mL/hr.
- D. 150 mL/hr.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Setting the IV pump to 125 mL/hr ensures the correct infusion rate for delivering 500 mL over 4 hours. To calculate the mL/hr rate, divide the total volume to be infused (500 mL) by the total time for infusion (4 hours): 500 mL / 4 hours = 125 mL/hr. Choice A (75 mL/hr) is too low and would result in an insufficient infusion rate, potentially delaying fluid resuscitation. Choice B (100 mL/hr) would also be too low and not deliver the fluid within the specified time frame. Choice D (150 mL/hr) is too high and would infuse the fluid too quickly, potentially causing fluid overload and complications.
4. A healthcare provider is evaluating a client who reports paresthesia of the hands and feet. The provider should identify this manifestation as an indication of which of the following dietary deficiencies?
- A. Iron
- B. Riboflavin
- C. Vitamin C
- D. Vitamin B12
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Correct! Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to neurological symptoms, including paresthesia (tingling or numbness) of the hands and feet, due to its role in nerve health. Iron deficiency is more commonly associated with anemia symptoms like fatigue and pallor. Riboflavin deficiency can cause mouth and skin changes. Vitamin C deficiency is linked to scurvy symptoms like bleeding gums and easy bruising.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has acute pancreatitis and is at risk for an acid-base imbalance. For which manifestation of this acid-base imbalance should the nurse assess?
- A. Agitation
- B. Kussmaul respirations
- C. Seizures
- D. Positive Chvosteks sign
Correct answer: Kussmaul respirations
Rationale:
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