a nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin which of the following statements indicates an understandi
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A

1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Warfarin therapy requires regular blood testing to monitor INR levels and ensure therapeutic dosing. Option A is incorrect because acetaminophen can be taken with warfarin. Option B is not specific to warfarin administration. Option D is incorrect as it does not address the key monitoring requirement of blood testing while on warfarin.

2. A nurse is reviewing the medication orders for a client with heart failure. Which of the following medications should the nurse clarify with the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Ibuprofen. Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can worsen heart failure due to its effects on renal function and fluid retention. Therefore, the nurse should clarify the use of Ibuprofen with the provider. Choices A, B, and C (Furosemide, Spironolactone, and Digoxin) are commonly prescribed medications for heart failure that help manage symptoms and improve cardiac function, so they do not need clarification in this scenario.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has asthma. Which of the following areas should the nurse evaluate as the most reliable indicator of central cyanosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Central cyanosis is best assessed by examining the oral mucosa, as it is a more reliable indicator compared to other areas like the conjunctivae, soles of the feet, and ear lobes. The oral mucosa reflects the oxygen saturation levels of the blood more accurately. Conjunctivae and ear lobes may show cyanosis, but they are not as reliable as the oral mucosa. The soles of the feet are not typically used to assess central cyanosis.

4. A nurse in an emergency department is preparing a change-of-shift report for an adult client who is transferring to a medical-surgical unit using the SBAR communication tool. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the report?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In an SBAR report, key information such as the client's do-not-resuscitate (DNR) status should be included as it directly impacts the client's care and treatment plan. Choices B and C are important details but may not be as critical for immediate care planning during the shift change. Choice D, the client having Medicare insurance, is important for billing purposes but does not directly impact the client's immediate care needs.

5. A patient with a history of asthma is admitted with shortness of breath. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a bronchodilator as prescribed. This intervention is the priority for a patient with asthma experiencing shortness of breath as it helps relax the airways, making breathing easier. Encouraging the use of an incentive spirometer (Choice B) is beneficial for lung expansion but not the priority in this acute situation. Placing the patient in a high Fowler's position (Choice C) can also help with breathing but is not as immediate as administering a bronchodilator. While monitoring the patient's oxygen saturation closely (Choice D) is important, the immediate action to address the breathing difficulty is administering a bronchodilator.

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