Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should avoid taking acetaminophen while taking this medication
• B. I will take this medication at the same time each day
• C. I will need to get my blood tested regularly while taking this medication
• D. I should increase my intake of leafy green vegetables

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Warfarin therapy requires regular blood testing to monitor INR levels and ensure therapeutic dosing. Option A is incorrect because acetaminophen can be taken with warfarin. Option B is not specific to warfarin administration. Option D is incorrect as it does not address the key monitoring requirement of blood testing while on warfarin.

2. After unsuccessful alternatives, a patient requires restraints. The nurse is reviewing the orders. Which findings indicate to the nurse the order is legal and appropriate for safe care?

• A. The health care provider writes the type and location of the restraint.
• B. The health care provider renews orders for restraints every 24 hours.
• C. The health care provider performs a face-to-face assessment prior to the order.
• D. The health care provider orders restraints PRN (as needed).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the context of restraining a patient, it is crucial for the health care provider to specify the type and location of the restraint in the order to ensure the safety and well-being of the patient. This information helps guide the nursing staff in the safe application of restraints. Renewing orders every 24 hours ensures that the need for restraints is continually assessed, promoting patient safety. Performing a face-to-face assessment before ordering restraints allows for a thorough evaluation of the patient's condition and the necessity of using restraints. Ordering restraints PRN (as needed) is not appropriate for safe care as it lacks specificity and may lead to inconsistent application and monitoring.

3. How should a healthcare provider respond to a patient who is exhibiting signs of acute myocardial infarction (AMI)?

• A. Calling for emergency assistance immediately
• B. Administering nitroglycerin as prescribed
• C. Monitoring the patient's cardiac rhythm
• D. Administering oxygen and preparing for ECG

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient is exhibiting signs of acute myocardial infarction (AMI), the priority action is to call for emergency assistance immediately. This ensures that the patient receives prompt and appropriate care, including interventions such as administering oxygen, nitroglycerin, and monitoring cardiac rhythm. Administering nitroglycerin should only be done if prescribed by a healthcare provider after assessment and confirmation of AMI. Monitoring the patient's cardiac rhythm is important but not the initial action needed in this critical situation. Administering oxygen and preparing for an ECG are important interventions but should follow the immediate step of calling for emergency assistance.

4. A nurse is assessing a client following a head injury and a brief loss of consciousness. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 12
• B. Edematous bruise on the forehead
• C. Small drops of clear fluid in the left ear
• D. Pupils are 4 mm and reactive to light

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clear fluid draining from the ear may indicate a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak, which is a serious complication following a head injury. Reporting this finding is crucial as it may require immediate medical intervention to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are not as concerning as a CSF leak. A GCS score of 12 is relatively high, indicating a mild level of consciousness alteration. An edematous bruise on the forehead is a common physical finding after a head injury. Pupils that are 4 mm and reactive to light suggest normal pupillary function.

5. A healthcare professional is planning care for a client who is scheduled for a lumbar puncture. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional include?

• A. Restrict the client's fluid intake for 4 hours following the procedure
• B. Apply cold compresses to the puncture site after the procedure
• C. Instruct the client to increase oral fluid intake after the procedure
• D. Keep the client in a prone position for 12 hours after the procedure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action to include in caring for a client scheduled for a lumbar puncture is to instruct the client to increase oral fluid intake after the procedure. Increasing oral fluid intake helps replace cerebrospinal fluid lost during the lumbar puncture and reduces the risk of headaches. Restricting fluid intake (Choice A) is not recommended as it can lead to dehydration. Applying cold compresses (Choice B) is not necessary after a lumbar puncture. Keeping the client in a prone position for 12 hours (Choice D) is not required after a lumbar puncture and can cause discomfort and complications.

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