Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a primary focus of tertiary prevention in mental health?

• A. Identifying early signs of mental illness
• B. Preventing the occurrence of mental health problems
• C. Rehabilitation and prevention of further deterioration
• D. Providing a safe environment to prevent harm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rehabilitation and prevention of further deterioration. Tertiary prevention in mental health aims to provide interventions and support to individuals who already have a mental illness to prevent further deterioration and promote recovery. Choice A, identifying early signs of mental illness, is more aligned with primary prevention which focuses on preventing the onset of mental health problems. Choice B, preventing the occurrence of mental health problems, pertains to secondary prevention which involves early detection and intervention to prevent the progression of mental health issues. Choice D, providing a safe environment to prevent harm, is important but it is not the primary focus of tertiary prevention which is more centered on rehabilitation and improving the quality of life for individuals with existing mental health conditions.

2. What are the important considerations when administering blood products to a patient?

• A. Ensuring proper documentation of the transfusion
• B. Verifying the patient's identity before administration
• C. Monitoring for allergic reactions or transfusion reactions
• D. Monitoring the patient's vital signs during transfusion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Verifying the patient's identity before administration is a critical step to ensure that the correct blood product is given to the right patient, thereby preventing transfusion errors. While ensuring proper documentation of the transfusion (choice A) is important for record-keeping, verifying patient identity (choice B) directly addresses the risk of administering blood to the wrong patient. Monitoring for allergic reactions or transfusion reactions (choice C) and monitoring the patient's vital signs during transfusion (choice D) are also essential considerations during blood product administration, but verifying patient identity takes precedence to prevent potentially life-threatening errors.

3. Which of the following is a common manifestation of opioid withdrawal?

• A. Bradycardia and hypotension
• B. Tremors and increased blood pressure
• C. Severe muscle weakness and fatigue
• D. Severe hallucinations and delusions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tremors and increased blood pressure. During opioid withdrawal, individuals commonly experience symptoms such as tremors, increased blood pressure, and restlessness. Choice A, which suggests bradycardia and hypotension, is incorrect as opioid withdrawal often leads to tachycardia (rapid heart rate) and increased blood pressure. Choice C, severe muscle weakness and fatigue, is not a typical manifestation of opioid withdrawal. Choice D, severe hallucinations and delusions, is more characteristic of conditions like delirium tremens associated with alcohol withdrawal, rather than opioid withdrawal.

4. A nurse manager is presenting to a group of unit nurses the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act. Which of the following medications should the nurse include under Schedule II?

• A. Buprenorphine hydrochloride
• B. Hydrocodone bitartrate
• C. Diazepam
• D. Morphine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hydrocodone bitartrate. According to the Controlled Substances Act, hydrocodone bitartrate is classified as a Schedule II controlled substance due to its high potential for abuse and addiction. Diazepam (Choice C) and morphine (Choice D) are classified as Schedule IV and Schedule II controlled substances, respectively. Buprenorphine hydrochloride (Choice A) is classified as a Schedule III controlled substance. Therefore, hydrocodone bitartrate should be included under Schedule II medications when discussing the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act.

5. Which patient should the nurse see first?

• A. A 1-month-old infant looking at a shiny, round battery just out of arm's reach.
• B. A 56-year-old patient with oxygen and a lighter on the bedside table.
• C. A 56-year-old patient with oxygen using an electric razor for grooming.
• D. A bedridden patient who has a reddened area on the buttocks and needs to be turned.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the patient with oxygen and a lighter on the bedside table is at immediate risk of fire. Oxygen promotes combustion, and having a lighter nearby poses a serious safety hazard. This situation requires urgent attention to prevent a potential disaster. Choices A, C, and D do not present immediate life-threatening risks compared to the patient with oxygen and a lighter nearby.

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