Nursing Elites

1. What is the combat health support system in the field designed to do?

• A. Provide evacuation to the far rear for treatment and delay return to duty
• B. Project, sustain, and protect the health of the soldier in war and operations other than war
• C. Provide rearward evacuation and reassignment
• D. Provide far rear area care and delayed return to duty

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The combat health support system in the field is primarily designed to project, sustain, and protect the health of soldiers during war and other operations. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses solely on evacuation and delaying return to duty, missing the broader scope of health support. Choice C is incorrect as it only mentions rearward evacuation and reassignment, which is not the sole purpose of the combat health support system. Choice D is also incorrect as it emphasizes far rear area care and delayed return to duty, neglecting the comprehensive nature of health support in combat situations.

2. Enteral feedings may be appropriate for patients with:

• A. Acute cholecystitis
• B. Hepatic encephalopathy
• C. Ulcerative colitis in remission
• D. Acute exacerbation of Crohn’s disease

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Enteral feedings are commonly used in patients with Crohn’s disease during acute exacerbations to provide adequate nutrition while resting the bowel. Acute cholecystitis, hepatic encephalopathy, and ulcerative colitis in remission wouldn't typically require enteral feedings as the primary nutritional support. Acute cholecystitis may necessitate fasting and intravenous fluids, hepatic encephalopathy may require dietary modifications but not enteral feedings, and patients with ulcerative colitis in remission usually have their nutritional needs met through a regular diet.

3. The client with peripheral venous disease is scheduled to go to the whirlpool for a dressing change. Which is the nurse’s priority intervention?

• A. Escort the client to the physical therapy department
• B. Medicate the client 30 minutes before going to the whirlpool
• C. Obtain the sterile dressing supplies for the client
• D. Assist the client to the bathroom prior to the treatment

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Pain management is essential before the procedure to ensure the client’s comfort and cooperation during the dressing change. Escorting the client to the physical therapy department (choice A) is not the priority at this time. While obtaining sterile dressing supplies (choice C) is important, ensuring pain management takes precedence. Assisting the client to the bathroom (choice D) is not directly related to the priority intervention of pain management before the whirlpool treatment.

4. The best position for any procedure that involves vaginal and cervical examination is

• A. Dorsal recumbent
• B. Side lying
• C. Supine
• D. Lithotomy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The lithotomy position is the most suitable position for procedures involving vaginal and cervical examination because it provides the best access to the vaginal and cervical regions. In this position, the patient lies on their back with their legs flexed and feet placed in stirrups, allowing for optimal visualization and access to the area. This position facilitates proper examination, diagnosis, and treatment when working in the gynecological field. The other options (dorsal recumbent, side lying, and supine) do not provide the same level of access and visualization as the lithotomy position, making them less ideal for vaginal and cervical examinations.

5. A patient with chronic renal failure should avoid which of the following?

• A. Potassium
• B. Calcium
• C. Iron
• D. Zinc

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients with chronic renal failure should avoid potassium due to impaired kidney function. The kidneys may not effectively filter excess potassium from the blood, leading to hyperkalemia. Calcium, iron, and zinc do not need to be avoided specifically in chronic renal failure unless there are other underlying reasons or complications.

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