Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is developing a care plan for a client who has paraplegia and has an area of nonblanchable erythema over the ischium. Which intervention should the nurse include?

• A. Place the client upright on a donut-shaped cushion.
• B. Teach the client to shift his weight every 15 minutes while sitting.
• C. Turn and reposition the client every 3 hours.
• D. Assess pressure points every 24 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with nonblanchable erythema over the ischium is to teach the client to shift his weight every 15 minutes while sitting. This action helps relieve pressure on the affected area and prevents further skin breakdown. Placing the client upright on a donut-shaped cushion (Choice A) may not address the need for frequent weight shifts. Turning and repositioning the client every 3 hours (Choice C) is important for overall skin health but may not provide adequate relief for the specific area of nonblanchable erythema. Assessing pressure points every 24 hours (Choice D) is not frequent enough to prevent worsening of the skin condition in this case.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a history of angina. The client reports chest pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin every 5 minutes
• B. Administer aspirin 325 mg
• C. Encourage the client to use deep breathing exercises
• D. Apply oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client with a history of angina reports chest pain is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin every 5 minutes. Nitroglycerin helps dilate blood vessels, improving blood flow to the heart and relieving chest pain associated with angina. Aspirin is often given during a suspected heart attack, not for immediate relief of angina. Deep breathing exercises may be beneficial for anxiety or respiratory conditions but are not the first-line intervention for angina. Oxygen therapy is not the initial treatment for angina unless the client is hypoxic.

3. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has an arteriovenous fistula. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report?

• A. Thrill upon palpation.
• B. Absence of a bruit.
• C. Distended blood vessels.
• D. Swishing sound upon auscultation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Absence of a bruit. In a client with an arteriovenous fistula, the presence of a bruit (a humming sound) is an expected finding due to the high-pressure flow of blood through the fistula. Therefore, the absence of a bruit suggests a complication, such as thrombosis or stenosis, which should be reported for further evaluation and management. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a thrill upon palpation, distended blood vessels, and a swishing sound upon auscultation are expected findings in a client with an arteriovenous fistula and do not necessarily indicate a complication.

4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for insulin glargine. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. This insulin has a peak effect of 2 to 4 hours.
• B. This insulin has a duration of action of 24 hours.
• C. This insulin is given before meals to control your blood sugar.
• D. You should avoid eating 30 minutes before or after taking this insulin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Insulin glargine has a 24-hour duration of action, making it suitable for once-daily dosing for long-term blood sugar control. Choice A is incorrect as insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin with no pronounced peak effect in its action profile. Choice C is incorrect as insulin glargine is usually given at the same time each day regardless of meals. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to avoid eating before or after taking insulin glargine.

5. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning in a patient taking digoxin?

• A. Monitor potassium levels
• B. Monitor calcium levels
• C. Monitor sodium levels
• D. Monitor magnesium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels. Patients taking digoxin are at risk of developing toxicity due to hypokalemia. Low potassium levels can potentiate the toxic effects of digoxin on the heart, leading to serious arrhythmias. Monitoring calcium levels (Choice B) is not the primary concern in patients taking digoxin. While calcium levels play a role in cardiac function, hypocalcemia is not directly associated with digoxin toxicity. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice C) is important for other conditions but is not the primary concern in a patient taking digoxin. Monitoring magnesium levels (Choice D) is also essential, but hypomagnesemia is not as directly linked to digoxin toxicity as hypokalemia.

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