a nurse is developing a care plan for a client who has paraplegia and has an area of nonblanchable erythema over the ischium which intervention should
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is developing a care plan for a client who has paraplegia and has an area of nonblanchable erythema over the ischium. Which intervention should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with nonblanchable erythema over the ischium is to teach the client to shift his weight every 15 minutes while sitting. This action helps relieve pressure on the affected area and prevents further skin breakdown. Placing the client upright on a donut-shaped cushion (Choice A) may not address the need for frequent weight shifts. Turning and repositioning the client every 3 hours (Choice C) is important for overall skin health but may not provide adequate relief for the specific area of nonblanchable erythema. Assessing pressure points every 24 hours (Choice D) is not frequent enough to prevent worsening of the skin condition in this case.

2. Which lab value should be monitored in patients receiving furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels in patients receiving furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss in the urine, potentially causing hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications associated with low potassium levels, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring sodium levels (choice B) is not typically necessary with furosemide use, as it primarily affects potassium levels. Calcium levels (choice C) and glucose levels (choice D) are not directly impacted by furosemide and require monitoring for other conditions or medications.

3. What is the first action to take when a patient experiences a seizure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The first action to take when a patient experiences a seizure is to protect the patient from injury. This is crucial to prevent harm during the seizure. Administering oxygen, IV fluids, or anti-seizure medication may be necessary based on the patient's condition, but ensuring their safety by removing harmful objects, cushioning their head, and keeping the area clear is the immediate priority. Administering oxygen, IV fluids, or medication would come after ensuring the patient's safety.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor and notes the FHR baseline has been 100/min for the past 15 minutes. The nurse should identify which of the following conditions as a possible cause of fetal bradycardia?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline of 100/min for the past 15 minutes indicates bradycardia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to decreased oxygen supply to the fetus, resulting in fetal bradycardia. This situation requires immediate intervention to address the underlying cause. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with fetal bradycardia. Maternal fever, fetal anemia, and chorioamnionitis may have other effects on the fetus but are not primary causes of bradycardia in this context.

5. A nurse is assisting with the development of an informed document for participation in a research study. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'A statement that participants can leave the study at will.' This information is crucial to include in the informed document to ensure that participants are aware of their right to withdraw from the study at any time without any negative consequences. Choice B is incorrect because participants should not be assigned to experimental or control groups without their knowledge and consent. Choice C is incorrect because disclosing a list of clients participating in the study violates confidentiality. Choice D is incorrect as the description of the data evaluation framework is important but not as critical as ensuring participants know they can leave the study at will.

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