what dietary strategy would most likely be used as part of lifestyle management to reduce the risk of coronary heart disease
Logo

Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Nutrition Online Practice 2019

1. What dietary strategy would most likely be used as part of lifestyle management to reduce the risk of coronary heart disease?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Limiting alcohol intake is part of a strategy to reduce the risk of coronary heart disease by avoiding the negative cardiovascular effects associated with excessive alcohol consumption.

2. The parent of a child newly diagnosed with lactose intolerance is being taught by the nurse. Which food items identified by the parent indicate an understanding of foods to avoid?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Milk, cheese, ice cream, and puddings contain lactose, which individuals with lactose intolerance should avoid. Choices A, C, and D do not contain lactose and are not typically problematic for individuals with lactose intolerance.

3. Which is the best description of a full-liquid diet?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a full-liquid diet is designed to provide adequate nutrients while being easily digested. Choices A and B are incorrect because a full-liquid diet is not specifically tailored for individuals with an ileostomy or lactose intolerance. Choice C is also incorrect as it describes characteristics that are not defining features of a full-liquid diet.

4. What are the manifestations of nephrotic syndrome?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Infection is a common manifestation of nephrotic syndrome. This is due to the loss of immunoglobulins in the urine, which weakens the body's immune defenses. Dehydration (Choice A) and uremia (Choice B) can be symptoms of kidney dysfunction but are not specific manifestations of nephrotic syndrome. Low blood lipids (Choice D) is incorrect as nephrotic syndrome typically results in high, not low, blood lipid levels due to the body's attempt to replace lost proteins.

5. Which of the following is a tricyclic antidepressant drug?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Imipramine (Tofranil) is a tricyclic antidepressant drug. This class of medications is used to treat depression, and they work by increasing the levels of certain chemicals in the brain that help lift mood. On the other hand, Venlafaxine (Effexor) is a serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI), Fluoxetine (Prozac) is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), and Sertraline (Zoloft) is also an SSRI. Therefore, they are not classified as tricyclic antidepressants.

Similar Questions

It is not a legally binding document but nevertheless, Very important in caring for the patients.
What is the purpose of a chest tube after a lobectomy procedure, as understood by the nurse?
You are an ostomy nurse and you know that colostomy is defined as:
A client was rushed in the E.R showing a whitish, leathery and painless burned area on his skin. The nurse is correct in classifying this burn as:
A client with anorexia undergoing radiation therapy is being taught by a nurse. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching?

Access More Features

ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses