Nursing Elites

1. What dietary changes should a patient with GERD make to manage their symptoms?

• A. Avoid mint and spicy foods
• B. Eat large, frequent meals
• C. Consume liquids with meals
• D. Eat small, frequent meals

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid mint and spicy foods. Patients with GERD should avoid foods like mint and spicy dishes as they can trigger symptoms by increasing gastric acid secretion. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Eating large, frequent meals can exacerbate GERD symptoms by putting more pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter, consuming liquids with meals can lead to increased reflux, and eating small, frequent meals is the recommended approach to reduce symptoms and manage GERD.

2. What are the early signs of compartment syndrome?

• A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness
• B. Localized redness and swelling
• C. Fever and infection
• D. Loss of sensation in the affected area

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness. These signs are typical early indicators of compartment syndrome, suggesting compromised circulation. Choice B, localized redness and swelling, can be seen in conditions like cellulitis but are not specific to compartment syndrome. Choice C, fever and infection, are not characteristic early signs of compartment syndrome. Choice D, loss of sensation in the affected area, is more indicative of nerve damage rather than being one of the early signs of compartment syndrome.

3. A patient with a chest tube has continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber. What does this indicate?

• A. An air leak
• B. A blocked chest tube
• C. Drainage from the site
• D. Blood clot in the chest tube

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube indicates an air leak. This situation requires immediate attention to prevent complications such as lung collapse. A blocked chest tube would typically result in absent or fluctuating bubbling. Drainage from the site would be observed in the collection chamber, not the water seal chamber. A blood clot in the chest tube would lead to cessation of drainage.

4. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide 20 mg PO twice daily. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?

• A. Monitor for increased blood pressure
• B. Increase intake of high-potassium foods
• C. Expect an increase in swelling in the hands and feet
• D. Take the second dose at bedtime

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase their intake of high-potassium foods. Furosemide can lead to hypokalemia, a condition of low potassium levels in the blood. Increasing the consumption of high-potassium foods helps prevent this adverse effect. Monitoring for increased blood pressure (choice A) is not directly related to furosemide use. Expecting an increase in swelling (choice C) is incorrect as furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce swelling. Taking the second dose at bedtime (choice D) is not necessary unless prescribed by the healthcare provider.

5. What is the appropriate electrical intervention for a patient with ventricular tachycardia and a pulse?

• A. Defibrillation
• B. Synchronized cardioversion
• C. Pacing
• D. Medication administration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Synchronized cardioversion is the correct electrical intervention for a patient with ventricular tachycardia and a pulse. This procedure delivers a synchronized electrical shock to the heart during a specific phase of the cardiac cycle, aiming to restore the heart's normal rhythm. Defibrillation (choice A) is used for pulseless ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation. Pacing (choice C) is typically used for bradycardias or certain types of heart blocks. Medication administration (choice D) may be used in some cases, but in the scenario of ventricular tachycardia with a pulse, synchronized cardioversion is the preferred intervention.

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