what dietary changes should a patient with gerd make to manage their symptoms
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 2

1. What dietary changes should a patient with GERD make to manage their symptoms?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid mint and spicy foods. Patients with GERD should avoid foods like mint and spicy dishes as they can trigger symptoms by increasing gastric acid secretion. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Eating large, frequent meals can exacerbate GERD symptoms by putting more pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter, consuming liquids with meals can lead to increased reflux, and eating small, frequent meals is the recommended approach to reduce symptoms and manage GERD.

2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who has COPD about nutrition. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Consume high-calorie foods.' Clients with COPD often have increased energy needs due to the work of breathing. Consuming high-calorie, high-protein foods can help provide the necessary energy and prevent weight loss. Choice A is incorrect because eating three large meals daily may lead to increased shortness of breath due to a full stomach putting pressure on the diaphragm. Choice C is incorrect because caffeinated drinks can contribute to dehydration, which is not ideal for clients with COPD. Choice D is incorrect because drinking fluids during mealtime can cause bloating and early satiety, making it difficult for clients to consume enough calories.

3. What is the first medication to administer to a patient experiencing wheezing due to an allergic reaction?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Albuterol via nebulizer. Albuterol is the first-choice medication for wheezing due to its fast-acting bronchodilatory effect, which helps in relieving the symptoms quickly. Choice B, Methylprednisolone 100 mg IV, is a corticosteroid used for its anti-inflammatory effects and would be beneficial in reducing inflammation in allergic reactions but is not the first-line treatment for wheezing. Choice C, Cromolyn 20 mg via nebulizer, is a mast cell stabilizer used to prevent asthma attacks but is not the immediate treatment for wheezing during an allergic reaction. Choice D, Aminophylline 500 mg IV, is a bronchodilator but is not typically the initial medication of choice for wheezing in an allergic reaction.

4. What lab value should be prioritized for a patient with HIV?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 should be prioritized for a patient with HIV. This value is crucial as it indicates severe immunocompromise in HIV-infected individuals. Monitoring CD4 T-cell count helps assess the status of the immune system and guides treatment decisions. Serum albumin levels (choice B) may reflect the patient's nutritional status and overall health but are not as specific to HIV disease progression. White blood cell count (choice C) and hemoglobin levels (choice D) can be affected by various factors and are not as directly linked to HIV management as the CD4 T-cell count in this context.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a heart rate of 40/min. The client is diaphoretic and has chest pain. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Atropine. The client's presentation of bradycardia, diaphoresis, and chest pain indicates reduced cardiac output, requiring intervention to increase the heart rate. Atropine is used to treat bradycardia by blocking cardiac muscarinic receptors, thus inhibiting the parasympathetic nervous system. Lidocaine (Choice A) is used for ventricular arrhythmias, not bradycardia. Adenosine (Choice B) is used for supraventricular tachycardia, not bradycardia. Verapamil (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used for certain arrhythmias and hypertension, but not for increasing heart rate in bradycardia.

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