Nursing Elites

1. What is a key component of a comprehensive discharge plan for a patient with heart failure?

• A. Advising on appropriate physical activity and exercise
• B. Fluid restriction to prevent fluid overload
• C. Dietary recommendations, including a low-sodium diet
• D. Medication management, including diuretics and ACE inhibitors

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The main components of a comprehensive discharge plan for a patient with heart failure include advising on appropriate physical activity and exercise to improve cardiovascular health and overall well-being. While fluid restriction and dietary recommendations are important aspects of heart failure management, advising on physical activity and exercise is crucial for improving cardiac function and quality of life post-discharge. Medication management is also essential but focusing on physical activity is particularly relevant for long-term management and preventing readmissions.

2. The patient experienced a surgical procedure, and Betadine was utilized as the surgical prep. Two days postoperatively, the nurse's assessment indicates that the incision is red and has a small amount of purulent drainage. The patient reports tenderness at the incision site. The patient's temperature is 100.5°F, and the WBC is 10,500/mm³. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Reevaluate the temperature and white blood cell count in 4 hours.
• B. Check which solution was used for skin preparation in surgery.
• C. Plan to change the surgical dressing during the shift.
• D. Utilize SBAR to notify the primary health care provider.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The patient is showing signs of a possible surgical site infection, including redness, purulent drainage, tenderness, elevated temperature, and increased white blood cell count. These symptoms suggest the need for immediate action to address a potential complication. Utilizing SBAR to notify the primary health care provider is crucial as it allows for effective communication of the patient's condition and the need for further assessment and intervention. Reevaluating the temperature and white blood cell count later, checking the solution used for skin preparation, or planning to change the dressing do not address the urgent need for intervention and communication with the healthcare provider.

3. A nurse is developing a plan of care for an older adult who is at risk for falls. Which of the following actions should the nurse include?

• A. Lock beds and wheelchairs when not in use
• B. Administer a sedative at bedtime
• C. Provide information about home safety checks
• D. Teach balance and strengthening exercises

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to include in the plan of care for an older adult at risk for falls is to lock beds and wheelchairs when not in use. This measure is crucial for preventing falls and ensuring patient safety in healthcare settings. Administering sedatives at bedtime (Choice B) is not recommended as it does not address the underlying risk factors for falls and may increase the risk of injury. Providing information about home safety checks (Choice C) is important for fall prevention in the home environment but is not directly related to healthcare settings. Teaching balance and strengthening exercises (Choice D) is beneficial for fall prevention but may not be suitable for all older adults at risk for falls, especially in acute care settings.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer the initial dose of ceftriaxone to a client who has endometritis. Which of the following statements by the client should cause the healthcare professional to hold the medication and consult the provider?

• A. I have a severe allergy to amoxicillin
• B. I get sick when I take diuretics
• C. I have a history of hearing problems
• D. I take prednisone for my asthma

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A severe allergy to amoxicillin could indicate a potential cross-reactivity with ceftriaxone, so the medication should be held. Cross-reactivity between penicillins (like amoxicillin) and cephalosporins (like ceftriaxone) is a known concern due to their similar chemical structures. Choices B, C, and D do not directly contraindicate the administration of ceftriaxone for endometritis.

5. Which of the following is a primary focus of tertiary prevention in mental health?

• A. Identifying early signs of mental illness
• B. Preventing the occurrence of mental health problems
• C. Rehabilitation and prevention of further deterioration
• D. Providing a safe environment to prevent harm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rehabilitation and prevention of further deterioration. Tertiary prevention in mental health aims to provide interventions and support to individuals who already have a mental illness to prevent further deterioration and promote recovery. Choice A, identifying early signs of mental illness, is more aligned with primary prevention which focuses on preventing the onset of mental health problems. Choice B, preventing the occurrence of mental health problems, pertains to secondary prevention which involves early detection and intervention to prevent the progression of mental health issues. Choice D, providing a safe environment to prevent harm, is important but it is not the primary focus of tertiary prevention which is more centered on rehabilitation and improving the quality of life for individuals with existing mental health conditions.

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