Nursing Elites

1. What are the clinical manifestations of hypovolemic shock, and how should a nurse respond?

• A. Hypertension, bradycardia, and oliguria
• B. Bradycardia, hypertension, and peripheral edema
• C. Tachypnea, cool skin, and confusion
• D. Tachycardia, hypotension, and decreased urine output

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tachycardia, hypotension, and decreased urine output are classic clinical manifestations of hypovolemic shock. In hypovolemic shock, the body tries to compensate for low blood volume by increasing the heart rate (tachycardia) to maintain cardiac output, leading to hypotension and decreased urine output. Prompt fluid replacement is necessary to restore intravascular volume. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not represent the typical manifestations of hypovolemic shock.

2. The nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of guided imagery for pain management in a patient with second- and third-degree burns requiring extensive dressing changes. Which finding best indicates the effectiveness of guided imagery?

• A. The patient's need for analgesic medication decreases during the dressing changes.
• B. The patient rates pain during the dressing change as a 6 on a scale of 0 to 10.
• C. The patient asks for pain medication during the dressing changes only once throughout the procedure.
• D. The patient's facial expressions remain stoic during the procedure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A reduction in the need for analgesic medication indicates that guided imagery is effective in managing the patient's pain. Choices B, C, and D do not directly measure the effectiveness of guided imagery. A patient rating pain as 6 on a scale of 0 to 10, asking for pain medication once, or having stoic facial expressions may not necessarily reflect the impact of guided imagery on pain management.

3. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following is a priority nursing intervention?

• A. Administer a dextrose 50% IV bolus
• B. Provide 8 oz of orange juice
• C. Administer regular insulin IV infusion
• D. Give oral metformin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Administer regular insulin IV infusion. In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the priority intervention is to rapidly decrease blood glucose levels. Administering regular insulin via IV infusion helps in lowering blood glucose effectively and quickly. Choice A, administering a dextrose 50% IV bolus, is incorrect because it would further increase blood sugar levels. Choice B, providing orange juice, is not appropriate for treating DKA as it contains sugar that will elevate blood glucose levels. Choice D, giving oral metformin, is not suitable for immediate blood glucose reduction as it acts over time and is not the first-line treatment for DKA.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who is receiving heparin therapy for a deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following lab values indicates a therapeutic response to the therapy?

• A. PT of 12 seconds
• B. aPTT of 70 seconds
• C. Platelets of 150,000/mm3
• D. INR of 1.5

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 70 seconds is within the therapeutic range for a client receiving heparin therapy. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most sensitive test to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic aPTT range for a client receiving heparin is usually 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. Choices A, C, and D are not indicators of a therapeutic response to heparin therapy. PT measures the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not specific to monitoring heparin therapy. Platelet count is important to monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, but it does not indicate the therapeutic response to heparin therapy. INR is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin therapy.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client 15 minutes after administering morphine sulfate 2 mg via IV push. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Drowsy but responsive when her name is called
• B. SaO2 94%
• C. Respiratory rate 8/min
• D. Pain level of 6 on a scale from 0 to 10

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 8/min is a significant adverse effect of morphine that indicates respiratory depression, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications. The client may not be effectively ventilating, leading to hypoxia and respiratory acidosis. Option A is less concerning as being drowsy but responsive is a common side effect of morphine. Option B indicates decreased oxygen saturation, which is also a concern but not as severe as respiratory depression. Option D is important but not as critical as the potential respiratory compromise indicated by the low respiratory rate.

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