Nursing Elites

1. What are the clinical manifestations of hypovolemic shock, and how should a nurse respond?

• A. Hypertension, bradycardia, and oliguria
• B. Bradycardia, hypertension, and peripheral edema
• C. Tachypnea, cool skin, and confusion
• D. Tachycardia, hypotension, and decreased urine output

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tachycardia, hypotension, and decreased urine output are classic clinical manifestations of hypovolemic shock. In hypovolemic shock, the body tries to compensate for low blood volume by increasing the heart rate (tachycardia) to maintain cardiac output, leading to hypotension and decreased urine output. Prompt fluid replacement is necessary to restore intravascular volume. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not represent the typical manifestations of hypovolemic shock.

2. Which action by a nurse demonstrates effective communication with a patient?

• A. Providing the patient with written information about their care.
• B. Maintaining eye contact and listening actively to the patient.
• C. Using medical jargon to explain the patient's condition.
• D. Speaking with the patient in a hurried manner to save time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Maintaining eye contact and actively listening to the patient is crucial in effective communication as it helps build rapport, shows empathy, and ensures that the patient feels heard and understood. Providing written information can be helpful, but the direct interaction is essential for effective communication. Using medical jargon may confuse the patient instead of clarifying their condition. Speaking hurriedly can make the patient feel rushed and not valued, hindering effective communication.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who requires total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the nurse take when finding that the TPN solution is infusing too rapidly?

• A. Sit the client upright
• B. Stop the TPN infusion
• C. Turn the client on their left side
• D. Prepare to add insulin to the TPN infusion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when finding that the TPN solution is infusing too rapidly is to stop the TPN infusion. This is crucial to prevent fluid overload and ensure the client's safety. Sitting the client upright (Choice A) or turning the client on their left side (Choice C) are not appropriate responses to a rapidly infusing TPN solution and do not address the immediate issue of preventing complications from the rapid infusion. Adding insulin to the TPN infusion (Choice D) is not indicated unless specifically prescribed by the healthcare provider for the client's condition. Therefore, the priority action is to stop the TPN infusion to prevent potential harm.

4. A client just had a flexible bronchoscopy. Which of the following nursing actions is appropriate?

• A. Irrigate the client's throat every 4 hours
• B. Withhold food and liquids until the client's gag reflex returns
• C. Suction the client's oropharynx frequently
• D. Have the client refrain from talking for 24 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After a flexible bronchoscopy, it is essential to withhold food and liquids until the client's gag reflex returns. This precaution helps prevent aspiration, as the gag reflex protects the airway from foreign material. Irrigating the client's throat every 4 hours (Choice A) is unnecessary and may increase the risk of aspiration. Suctioning the client's oropharynx frequently (Choice C) can cause trauma and is not indicated unless there is a specific medical reason for it. Having the client refrain from talking for 24 hours (Choice D) is not necessary after a flexible bronchoscopy.

5. A nurse is planning care for a client who has dehydration and is receiving a continuous IV infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Monitor the client's intake and output every 6 hours
• B. Administer furosemide to the client
• C. Check the client's IV infusion every 8 hours
• D. Offer the client 240 ml (8 oz) of oral fluids every 4 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Offering the client 240 ml (8 oz) of oral fluids every 4 hours is essential to maintain hydration in a client with dehydration who is receiving continuous IV infusion. This intervention helps ensure an adequate fluid balance. Monitoring the client's intake and output every 6 hours is necessary to assess hydration status and response to treatment. Administering furosemide to the client, choice B, is contraindicated in dehydration as it can further deplete fluid volume. Checking the IV infusion every 8 hours, as in choice C, is important but not as critical as ensuring oral fluid intake to promote hydration.

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