what are the clinical manifestations of hypovolemic shock and how should a nurse respond
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A

1. What are the clinical manifestations of hypovolemic shock, and how should a nurse respond?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tachycardia, hypotension, and decreased urine output are classic clinical manifestations of hypovolemic shock. In hypovolemic shock, the body tries to compensate for low blood volume by increasing the heart rate (tachycardia) to maintain cardiac output, leading to hypotension and decreased urine output. Prompt fluid replacement is necessary to restore intravascular volume. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not represent the typical manifestations of hypovolemic shock.

2. A client is undergoing chemotherapy and expresses concern about hair loss. What is the best response?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best response when a client undergoing chemotherapy expresses concern about hair loss is to advise them that chemotherapy causes temporary hair loss. This response provides accurate information to the client about the side effect they are experiencing. Choice A is incorrect because it may provide false reassurance as for some individuals, hair loss can be a challenging experience. Choice B is not the best initial response as addressing the client's concerns and providing information should come first. Choice C is not the most appropriate response as cutting hair short may not necessarily prevent hair loss and does not address the client's concerns about the temporary nature of chemotherapy-induced hair loss.

3. A nurse manager is implementing a quality improvement project to reduce the number of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infections at the facility. Which of the following actions should the nurse manager take first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Conducting a chart review to evaluate the precipitating factors of clients who develop MRSA is the initial step in reducing these infections. By identifying factors contributing to MRSA infections, the nurse manager can develop targeted interventions. Developing an MRSA protocol (choice A) and providing educational in-services (choice B) would be premature without understanding the specific factors at play. Evaluating outcomes (choice C) should come after implementing interventions based on the findings from the chart review.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer medications to four clients. The nurse should administer medications to which client first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client with renal failure and high potassium levels requires immediate attention because hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac complications. Administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate helps lower the potassium levels. Choice A, the client with pneumonia and a high WBC count, although important, does not present an immediate life-threatening condition. Choice C, the post-CABG client prescribed atorvastatin, and Choice D, the client with anemia and a hemoglobin level of 11g/dL prescribed epoetin alfa, do not require immediate intervention compared to managing hyperkalemia in a client with renal failure.

5. A newly licensed nurse is giving a change-of-shift report using I-SBAR to an oncoming nurse. Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse should be included in the 'Background' portion of the report?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the 'Background' portion of the report, the nurse should include relevant historical information about the client, such as the fact that the client has no living family members. This information helps provide a more comprehensive understanding of the client's situation. Choices A, B, and D are not typically included in the 'Background' section as they do not pertain to the client's history or background.

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