ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B
1. A patient is receiving a blood transfusion and develops chills, a headache, and low back pain. What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Administer acetaminophen
- B. Stop the transfusion
- C. Slow the transfusion rate
- D. Administer antihistamines
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to stop the transfusion (Choice B). The symptoms described - chills, headache, and low back pain - are indicative of a transfusion reaction. The priority action is to immediately stop the transfusion to prevent further complications such as more severe reactions like hemolytic reactions or anaphylaxis. Administering acetaminophen (Choice A) may help with symptoms but does not address the underlying cause. Slowing the transfusion rate (Choice C) may not be sufficient if a serious transfusion reaction is occurring. Administering antihistamines (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation; stopping the transfusion takes precedence to ensure patient safety.
2. A nurse is developing a plan of care for an older adult who is at risk for falls. Which of the following actions should the nurse include?
- A. Lock beds and wheelchairs when not in use
- B. Administer a sedative at bedtime
- C. Provide information about home safety checks
- D. Teach balance and strengthening exercises
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to include in the plan of care for an older adult at risk for falls is to lock beds and wheelchairs when not in use. This measure is crucial for preventing falls and ensuring patient safety in healthcare settings. Administering sedatives at bedtime (Choice B) is not recommended as it does not address the underlying risk factors for falls and may increase the risk of injury. Providing information about home safety checks (Choice C) is important for fall prevention in the home environment but is not directly related to healthcare settings. Teaching balance and strengthening exercises (Choice D) is beneficial for fall prevention but may not be suitable for all older adults at risk for falls, especially in acute care settings.
3. A client was exposed to anthrax. Which of the following antibiotics should be administered?
- A. Fluconazole
- B. Tobramycin
- C. Ciprofloxacin
- D. Vancomycin
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is Ciprofloxacin. Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic effective in treating anthrax exposure. Fluconazole (Choice A) is an antifungal medication used for fungal infections, not anthrax. Tobramycin (Choice B) is an antibiotic used for bacterial infections but is not the first line of treatment for anthrax. Vancomycin (Choice D) is also an antibiotic, but it is not the preferred choice for treating anthrax.
4. A client with HIV-1 starting therapy with ritonavir and zidovudine asks why both medications are necessary. What explanation should the nurse provide?
- A. Taking two medications ensures a faster recovery.
- B. The medications work best together to improve your immune system.
- C. Taking the 2 medications together keeps you from becoming resistant to either of them.
- D. These medications target different parts of the virus.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because taking two medications together helps prevent the development of drug resistance in HIV treatment. Choice A is incorrect because the primary goal of combination therapy is not necessarily a faster recovery. Choice B is incorrect as the main purpose of combining medications in HIV treatment is to prevent resistance rather than improving the immune system. Choice D is incorrect because while it is true that the medications may target different parts of the virus, the main reason for using both together is to prevent resistance.
5. A nurse is assessing a client following a head injury and a brief loss of consciousness. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 12
- B. Edematous bruise on the forehead
- C. Small drops of clear fluid in the left ear
- D. Pupils are 4 mm and reactive to light
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clear fluid draining from the ear may indicate a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak, which is a serious complication following a head injury. Reporting this finding is crucial as it may require immediate medical intervention to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are not as concerning as a CSF leak. A GCS score of 12 is relatively high, indicating a mild level of consciousness alteration. An edematous bruise on the forehead is a common physical finding after a head injury. Pupils that are 4 mm and reactive to light suggest normal pupillary function.
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