warfarin coumadin is an anticoagulant and interferes with the action of
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 1

1. Warfarin (Coumadin) is an anticoagulant and interferes with the action of:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vitamin K. Warfarin inhibits the action of vitamin K, which is essential for blood clotting. By interfering with the production of certain clotting factors, warfarin helps prevent blood clots. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because warfarin primarily affects the vitamin K-dependent clotting factors and not platelets, calcium, or vitamin B12.

2. The nurse is aware that norepinephrine is secreted by which endocrine gland?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: The adrenal medulla. Norepinephrine is secreted by the adrenal medulla and is involved in the body's 'fight or flight' response. The pancreas (choice A) secretes insulin and glucagon, not norepinephrine. The adrenal cortex (choice B) secretes hormones like cortisol and aldosterone, but not norepinephrine. The anterior pituitary gland (choice D) secretes various hormones like growth hormone and thyroid-stimulating hormone, but not norepinephrine.

3. During the admission interview, which question should the nurse ask the male client diagnosed with aorto-iliac disease?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: “Have you experienced any problems having sexual intercourse?” Aorto-iliac disease can lead to impaired blood flow to the pelvis and lower extremities, potentially causing sexual dysfunction. The other choices (A, B, and C) are less relevant to the specific effects of aorto-iliac disease on the client's health. While choice A may relate to discomfort, it does not directly address the impact of the disease on sexual function. Choices B and C are more general and do not specifically target the potential issues related to aorto-iliac disease.

4. A family came to the emergency department with complaints of food poisoning. Which client should the nurse see first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In cases of food poisoning, a 2-year-old with reduced urine output is a critical finding indicating dehydration, requiring immediate attention to prevent complications. The reduced urine output is a sign of decreased fluid intake or increased fluid loss, putting the child at high risk for dehydration. This client should be seen first to assess hydration status, initiate necessary interventions, and prevent further complications. While the other symptoms presented by the other clients are concerning, the 2-year-old's decreased urine output poses the most immediate threat to their well-being.

5. Which instructions should the nurse discuss with the client diagnosed with Raynaud’s phenomenon?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client diagnosed with Raynaud’s phenomenon is to wear extra warm clothing during cold exposure. This is essential in preventing vasospasms triggered by cold temperatures, which can worsen symptoms of Raynaud's phenomenon. Choice A is incorrect because exacerbations can occur in any season. Choice B is irrelevant and not directly related to managing Raynaud's phenomenon. Choice D is also incorrect as sunlight exposure does not significantly impact Raynaud's phenomenon.

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