ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 1
1. Warfarin (Coumadin) is an anticoagulant and interferes with the action of:
- A. Platelets
- B. Vitamin K
- C. Calcium
- D. Vitamin B12
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vitamin K. Warfarin inhibits the action of vitamin K, which is essential for blood clotting. By interfering with the production of certain clotting factors, warfarin helps prevent blood clots. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because warfarin primarily affects the vitamin K-dependent clotting factors and not platelets, calcium, or vitamin B12.
2. The nurse has given post-procedure instructions to a client who underwent a colonoscopy. Evaluation of learning would be evident if the client makes which statement(s)?
- A. All below
- B. “My abdominal muscles may be tender because of the procedure.”
- C. “My diet should be light at first, and then I can progress to a regular diet.”
- D. “It is normal to feel gassy or bloated for a short while after the procedure.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Mild tenderness, a light diet initially, and gas or bloating are expected after a colonoscopy.
3. What causes hepatic encephalopathy?
- A. Buildup of ammonia in the body
- B. Buildup of urea in the body
- C. Fatty infiltration of the liver
- D. Jaundice
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hepatic encephalopathy is caused by the buildup of ammonia in the body. Ammonia, a byproduct of protein metabolism, normally gets converted to urea in the liver for excretion. However, in liver dysfunction, such as cirrhosis, the liver cannot effectively convert ammonia to urea, leading to its accumulation in the body and subsequently causing hepatic encephalopathy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the pathophysiology of hepatic encephalopathy.
4. Six hours after major abdominal surgery, a male client complains of severe abdominal pain; is pale and perspiring; has a thready, rapid pulse; and states he feels faint. The nurse checks the client’s medication administration record and determines that the client receives another injection of pain medication in an hour. What is the appropriate action by the nurse?
- A. Explain to the client that it is too early to have an injection for pain
- B. Call the practitioner, report the client’s symptoms, and obtain further orders
- C. Reposition the client for greater comfort and turn on the television as a distraction
- D. Prepare the injection and administer it to the client early because of the severe pain
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is option B: Call the practitioner, report the client’s symptoms, and obtain further orders. The client is displaying symptoms that indicate potential complications, such as internal bleeding, which require immediate medical evaluation. Option A is incorrect because the client's condition suggests a more urgent need for assessment. Option C is inappropriate as it does not address the seriousness of the client's symptoms. Option D is dangerous and could exacerbate any underlying issue the client may be experiencing.
5. A client is at risk for excess fluid volume. Which nursing intervention ensures the most accurate monitoring of the client’s fluid status?
- A. Measuring and recording fluid intake and output
- B. Weighing the client daily at the same time each day
- C. Assessing the client’s vital signs every 4 hours
- D. Checking the client’s lungs for crackles during every shift
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Weighing the client daily at the same time each day is the most accurate method for monitoring fluid balance. Changes in body weight can indicate fluid retention or loss. Measuring and recording fluid intake and output (choice A) is important but may not reflect total body fluid status accurately. Assessing vital signs (choice C) and checking the client's lungs for crackles (choice D) are important assessments but do not directly provide the most accurate monitoring of fluid status.
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