ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5
1. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?
- A. Sitting
- B. Prone
- C. Sidelying
- D. Supine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B, Prone, is incorrect as lying face down would not provide a clear view of chest expansion. Choice C, Sidelying, is also incorrect as this position may limit the visibility of chest movements. Choice D, Supine, is not the best position for assessing chest expansion as it may not offer a clear observation of chest movements during breathing.
2. A client scheduled for surgery cannot sign the operative consent form because he has been sedated with opioid analgesics. The nurse should take which best action regarding the informed consent?
- A. Obtain a court order for the surgery
- B. Sign the informed consent on behalf of the client
- C. Send the client to surgery without the consent form being signed
- D. Obtain a telephone consent from a family member, with the consent being witnessed by two healthcare providers
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In situations where a client is unable to sign the consent form, obtaining a telephone consent from a family member witnessed by two healthcare providers is the appropriate action to ensure informed consent is obtained. Option A is not necessary and involves legal proceedings. Option B is not ethical as the nurse cannot sign the consent on behalf of the client. Option C is unsafe and violates the client's rights by proceeding without proper consent.
3. Which of the following is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?
- A. Increasing calcium intake
- B. Increasing phosphorus intake
- C. Decreasing calcium intake
- D. Administering phosphate binders
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, administering phosphate binders. Phosphate binders are a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia as they help by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (choice A) or phosphorus intake (choice B) would exacerbate hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (choice C) is not a primary intervention for managing high phosphorus levels.
4. What is established when threats to air resources prevent evacuation by air from forward units?
- A. Area support medical battalions
- B. TOE units
- C. Ambulance exchange points
- D. Field hospitals
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Ambulance exchange points are established when threats to air resources prevent evacuation by air from forward units. These points serve as locations where patients can be transferred between ground and air ambulances. Area support medical battalions (Choice A) refer to medical units that provide medical support to large areas and are not specifically related to evacuation. TOE units (Choice B) and field hospitals (Choice D) are not typically established in response to threats to air resources affecting evacuation.
5. In patients receiving chemotherapy, which nutrient is often supplemented to manage mucositis?
- A. Vitamin E
- B. Vitamin B12
- C. Zinc
- D. Calcium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Zinc supplementation is often recommended to manage mucositis in patients undergoing chemotherapy. Zinc plays a crucial role in wound healing and immune function, which can help alleviate the symptoms of mucositis. Vitamin E (Choice A) is known for its antioxidant properties but is not typically used to manage mucositis. Vitamin B12 (Choice B) is important for red blood cell production and nerve function but is not directly associated with mucositis management. Calcium (Choice D) is essential for bone health and muscle function but is not a primary nutrient supplemented to manage mucositis.