Nursing Elites

1. Traditionally, nurses have been involved with tertiary cancer prevention. However, an increasing emphasis is being placed on both primary and secondary prevention. What would be an example of primary prevention?

• A. Yearly Pap tests
• B. Testicular self-examination
• C. Teaching patients to wear sunscreen
• D. Screening mammograms

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Primary prevention involves actions taken to reduce the risk of developing cancer by preventing exposure to known risk factors or promoting healthy behaviors. Teaching patients to wear sunscreen is an example of primary prevention because it aims to reduce the risk of skin cancer by minimizing exposure to harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun. Encouraging protective measures such as wearing sunscreen, avoiding tanning beds, and wearing protective clothing are all steps to prevent skin cancer before it develops.

2. A nurse works on an oncology unit and delegates personal hygiene to assistive personnel (AP). What action by the AP requires intervention from the nurse?

• A. Allowing a very tired client to skip oral hygiene and sleep.
• B. Assisting clients with washing the perianal area every 12 hours.
• C. Helping the client use a soft-bristled toothbrush for oral care.
• D. Reminding the client to rinse the mouth with water or saline.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Skipping oral hygiene is not appropriate for a client, even if they are tired, as it increases the risk of infection.

3. A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with essential thrombocythemia (ET) who is at risk for thromboembolic events. What nursing intervention is most appropriate for this patient?

• A. Encouraging regular physical activity
• B. Administering anticoagulant therapy
• C. Monitoring for signs of bleeding
• D. Monitoring for signs of infection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering anticoagulant therapy is crucial to prevent thromboembolic events in patients with ET.

4. The nurse is caring for a client following radical neck dissection and creation of a tracheostomy. Which assessment finding would indicate an immediate need for intervention?

• A. Frequent swallowing
• B. Presence of mucous membranes
• C. Bubbling in the water-seal chamber
• D. Inspiratory stridor

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Inspiratory stridor is the correct answer as it suggests airway obstruction, a critical issue requiring immediate intervention. Frequent swallowing (choice A) is a common postoperative finding and does not indicate an immediate need for intervention. The presence of mucous membranes (choice B) is a normal finding and does not require immediate intervention. Bubbling in the water-seal chamber (choice C) of a chest tube drainage system is an expected finding and indicates proper functioning of the system, not an immediate need for intervention.

5. A clinic nurse is working with a patient who has a long-standing diagnosis of polycythemia vera. How can the nurse best gauge the course of the patient's disease?

• A. Document the color of the patient's palms and face during each visit.
• B. Follow the patient's erythrocyte sedimentation rate over time.
• C. Document the patient's response to erythropoietin injections.
• D. Follow the trends of the patient's hematocrit.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The course of polycythemia vera can be best ascertained by monitoring the patient's hematocrit, which should remain below 45%. Hematocrit levels are a key indicator in assessing the progression of the disease. Choices A, B, and C are not the most appropriate methods for gauging the course of polycythemia vera. Monitoring the color of the patient's palms and face, or their response to erythropoietin injections, may not provide an accurate reflection of the disease's progression. Similarly, while erythrocyte sedimentation rate can be affected in polycythemia vera, it is not the primary marker for monitoring the disease's course.

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