ATI RN
ATI Oncology Questions
1. Traditionally, nurses have been involved with tertiary cancer prevention. However, an increasing emphasis is being placed on both primary and secondary prevention. What would be an example of primary prevention?
- A. Yearly Pap tests
- B. Testicular self-examination
- C. Teaching patients to wear sunscreen
- D. Screening mammograms
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Primary prevention involves actions taken to reduce the risk of developing cancer by preventing exposure to known risk factors or promoting healthy behaviors. Teaching patients to wear sunscreen is an example of primary prevention because it aims to reduce the risk of skin cancer by minimizing exposure to harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun. Encouraging protective measures such as wearing sunscreen, avoiding tanning beds, and wearing protective clothing are all steps to prevent skin cancer before it develops.
2. The nurse is reviewing the history of a client with bladder cancer. The nurse expects to note documentation of which most common symptom of this type of cancer?
- A. Dysuria
- B. Hematuria
- C. Urgency on urination
- D. Frequency of urination
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hematuria, or blood in the urine, is the most common and distinctive symptom associated with bladder cancer. It can present as either gross hematuria (visible blood) or microscopic hematuria (detected only through urinalysis). The presence of blood in the urine often prompts further evaluation for potential underlying causes, including bladder cancer. It is crucial for healthcare providers to recognize this symptom, as early detection significantly impacts treatment outcomes.
3. A patient with acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) is undergoing chemotherapy and develops neutropenia. What is the most important nursing intervention for this patient?
- A. Administering antipyretics
- B. Restricting visitors
- C. Maintaining a sterile environment
- D. Administering prophylactic antibiotics
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Maintaining a sterile environment is crucial to prevent infection in neutropenic patients.
4. A client has a platelet count of 9800/mm3. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. Assess the client for calf pain, warmth, and redness.
- B. Instruct the client to call for help to get out of bed.
- C. Obtain cultures as per the facility’s standing policy.
- D. Place the client on protective Isolation Precautions.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A platelet count of 9800/mm³ indicates severe thrombocytopenia, placing the client at high risk for bleeding, even with minor trauma or injury. Instructing the client to call for help before getting out of bed ensures they receive assistance with mobility, which reduces the risk of falls or injuries that could lead to serious bleeding. Preventing any activity that could result in trauma is crucial when managing clients with very low platelet counts.
5. A client who is at risk for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) has a serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL. The nurse should take which of the following actions first?
- A. Recheck the fibrinogen level in 4 hours
- B. Notify the health care provider
- C. Continue to monitor the client
- D. Administer cryoprecipitate as prescribed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL indicates a low level, which puts the client at risk for bleeding in DIC. The priority action for the nurse is to notify the health care provider. Rechecking the fibrinogen level may delay necessary interventions, administering cryoprecipitate should be done based on the provider's prescription, and while monitoring is important, immediate notification of the provider is crucial to address the low fibrinogen level promptly.
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