ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023
1. Which assessment question asked by the nurse demonstrates an understanding of comorbid mental health conditions associated with major depressive disorder? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Do rules apply to you?
- B. What do you do to manage anxiety?
- C. Do you have a history of disordered eating?
- D. Do you think that you drink too much?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Questions about anxiety management, disordered eating, and alcohol use are relevant to identifying comorbid conditions with major depressive disorder, but the question 'Do rules apply to you?' does not directly address common comorbid mental health conditions associated with major depressive disorder.
2. In evaluating a client's response to stress, what would indicate a secondary appraisal of the stressful event?
- A. When the individual judges the event to be benign
- B. When the individual judges the event to be irrelevant
- C. When the individual judges the resources and skills needed to deal with the event
- D. When the individual judges the event to be pleasurable
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A secondary appraisal occurs when an individual evaluates the resources and skills required to cope with a stressful event. This type of appraisal focuses on the person's perceived ability to manage the situation. In contrast, choices A, B, and D do not involve the assessment of resources and skills. Choice A relates to a benign judgment of the event, choice B to an irrelevant judgment, and choice D to a pleasurable judgment, which are aspects of primary rather than secondary appraisals.
3. After a client with major depressive disorder undergoes electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), which of the following is a priority assessment for the nurse?
- A. Monitoring for signs of infection
- B. Monitoring for signs of respiratory distress
- C. Monitoring for signs of hypotension
- D. Monitoring for signs of bleeding
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority assessment for the nurse after a client undergoes electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is monitoring for signs of respiratory distress. This is crucial due to the potential risk of complications from anesthesia, such as airway compromise or respiratory depression. Prompt identification and intervention in case of respiratory distress are essential to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice A) is important but not the priority immediately post-ECT. Hypotension (Choice C) and bleeding (Choice D) are also potential concerns but assessing respiratory distress takes precedence due to the immediate risk it poses to the client's well-being.
4. Which should the healthcare provider recognize as a DSM-5 disorder?
- A. Obesity
- B. Generalized anxiety disorder
- C. Hypertension
- D. Grief
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The DSM-5 categorizes mental health disorders for diagnostic purposes. Generalized anxiety disorder is one of the disorders listed in the DSM-5, characterized by persistent and excessive worry about various events or activities. This disorder falls under the category of anxiety disorders, which also include panic disorder, phobias, and others. Choices A, C, and D are not DSM-5 disorders. Obesity and hypertension are medical conditions, while grief, though a significant emotional response, is not classified as a mental health disorder in the DSM-5.
5. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing delusions. Which intervention should the nurse implement to address this symptom?
- A. Encourage the client to ignore the delusions.
- B. Provide reality-based feedback to the client.
- C. Distract the client from the delusions.
- D. Encourage the client to discuss the delusions.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client with schizophrenia is experiencing delusions, providing reality-based feedback is considered an effective intervention to address this symptom. This approach helps the client differentiate between what is real and what is not real, assisting them in managing their delusions and promoting their overall well-being. Choice A is incorrect because ignoring the delusions does not help the client in distinguishing reality from delusions. Choice C is incorrect as distraction may only provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying issue. Choice D is incorrect because encouraging the client to discuss the delusions may reinforce or intensify them rather than help in managing them effectively.
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