ATI RN
Endocrinology Exam
1. To obtain a sterile urine specimen from a client with a Foley catheter, the nurse begins by applying a clamp to the drainage tubing distal to the injection port. What does the nurse do next?
- A. Clamp another section of the tube to create a fixed sample section for retrieval.
- B. Insert a syringe into the injection port and aspirate the quantity of urine required.
- C. Clean the injection port cap of the drainage tubing with povidone-iodine solution.
- D. Withdraw 10 mL of urine and discard it; then withdraw 10 mL more for the sample.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After clamping the drainage tubing, the next step in obtaining a sterile urine specimen from a client with a Foley catheter is to clean the injection port cap of the drainage tubing with povidone-iodine solution. This cleaning step helps prevent contamination of the urine sample. Clamping another section of the tube isn't necessary and may not be a standard practice. Inserting a syringe into the injection port to aspirate urine isn't the correct step at this point. Withdrawing 10 mL of urine and discarding it before collecting the sample isn't appropriate and may lead to an inaccurate sample.
2. A female client with deteriorating neurologic function states, "I am worried I will not be able to care for my young children."? How does the nurse respond?
- A. "Caring for your children is a priority. You may not want to ask for help, but you have to."?
- B. "Our community has resources that may help you with some household tasks so you have energy to care for your children."?
- C. "You seem distressed. Would you like to talk to a psychologist about adjusting to your changing status?"?
- D. "Give me more information about what worries you, so we can see if we can do something to make adjustments."?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client expresses worry about not being able to care for her children due to deteriorating neurologic function, the most appropriate response from the nurse is to gather more information from the client. This open-ended approach allows the nurse to better understand the client's specific concerns and needs, leading to tailored interventions and support. Choice A is dismissive and may make the client feel guilty for needing help. Choice B focuses on external resources without addressing the client's worries directly. Choice C suggests a psychological referral without exploring the client's concerns further. Therefore, the correct response is to gather more information to provide personalized support.
3. A client is diagnosed with varicella (chickenpox). The nurse places the client on which precautions?
- A. Airborne
- B. Standard
- C. Contact
- D. Droplet
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Airborne.' Varicella (chickenpox) is caused by the varicella-zoster virus, which spreads through the air by respiratory droplets. Therefore, placing the client on airborne precautions is necessary to prevent the transmission of the virus. Choice B, 'Standard precautions,' involve basic infection prevention measures that are used for all client care. Choice C, 'Contact precautions,' are used for diseases that spread by direct or indirect contact. Choice D, 'Droplet precautions,' are implemented for diseases transmitted by respiratory droplets that are larger than 5 microns.
4. While taking the history of an older adult client, which assessment finding alerts the nurse that the client needs further assessment for fluid or electrolyte imbalance?
- A. "I am often cold and need to wear a sweater."?
- B. "I seem to urinate more when I drink coffee."?
- C. "In the summer, I feel thirsty more often."?
- D. "My rings seem to be tighter this week."?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'My rings seem to be tighter this week.' This assessment finding indicates possible fluid retention, which can be a sign of fluid or electrolyte imbalance in an older adult. Choices A, B, and C do not specifically point towards fluid or electrolyte imbalance. Feeling cold, increased urination with coffee consumption, and feeling thirsty in the summer are not direct indicators of fluid or electrolyte imbalance in this context.
5. When obtaining a client’s vital signs, the nurse assesses a blood pressure of 134/88 mm Hg. What is the nurse’s best intervention?
- A. Call the healthcare provider and report the finding.
- B. Reassess the client’s blood pressure at the next follow-up appointment.
- C. Administer an additional antihypertensive medication to the client.
- D. Teach the client lifestyle modifications to decrease blood pressure.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to teach the client lifestyle modifications to decrease blood pressure. A blood pressure reading of 134/88 mm Hg falls within the prehypertension range. The initial approach to managing prehypertension involves lifestyle modifications such as dietary changes, exercise, and stress reduction techniques. Calling the healthcare provider without attempting non-pharmacological interventions first is premature. Reassessing blood pressure at the next follow-up appointment may delay necessary interventions. Administering additional antihypertensive medication is not indicated at this stage as lifestyle modifications are the first line of treatment for prehypertension.
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