Nursing Elites

1. To obtain a sterile urine specimen from a client with a Foley catheter, the nurse begins by applying a clamp to the drainage tubing distal to the injection port. What does the nurse do next?

• A. Clamp another section of the tube to create a fixed sample section for retrieval.
• B. Insert a syringe into the injection port and aspirate the quantity of urine required.
• C. Clean the injection port cap of the drainage tubing with povidone-iodine solution.
• D. Withdraw 10 mL of urine and discard it; then withdraw 10 mL more for the sample.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After clamping the drainage tubing, the next step in obtaining a sterile urine specimen from a client with a Foley catheter is to clean the injection port cap of the drainage tubing with povidone-iodine solution. This cleaning step helps prevent contamination of the urine sample. Clamping another section of the tube isn't necessary and may not be a standard practice. Inserting a syringe into the injection port to aspirate urine isn't the correct step at this point. Withdrawing 10 mL of urine and discarding it before collecting the sample isn't appropriate and may lead to an inaccurate sample.

2. The nurse is assessing a client with a history of heart failure who is receiving a unit of packed red blood cells. The client's respiratory rate is 33 breaths/min and blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg. Which action does the nurse take first?

• A. Administer prescribed diphenhydramine (Benadryl).
• B. Continue to monitor the client's vital signs.
• C. Stop the infusion of packed red blood cells.
• D. Slow the infusion rate of the transfusion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is showing signs of a potential transfusion reaction, indicated by an increased respiratory rate. The nurse's initial action should be to slow down the infusion rate of the packed red blood cells to prevent further complications. Administering diphenhydramine or stopping the infusion should not be the first actions taken, as the priority is to ensure the client's safety and prevent adverse reactions. Continuing to monitor vital signs without taking immediate action to address the increased respiratory rate would delay appropriate intervention.

3. A female client with deteriorating neurologic function states, "I am worried I will not be able to care for my young children."? How does the nurse respond?

• A. "Caring for your children is a priority. You may not want to ask for help, but you have to."?
• B. "Our community has resources that may help you with some household tasks so you have energy to care for your children."?
• C. "You seem distressed. Would you like to talk to a psychologist about adjusting to your changing status?"?
• D. "Give me more information about what worries you, so we can see if we can do something to make adjustments."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client expresses worry about not being able to care for her children due to deteriorating neurologic function, the most appropriate response from the nurse is to gather more information from the client. This open-ended approach allows the nurse to better understand the client's specific concerns and needs, leading to tailored interventions and support. Choice A is dismissive and may make the client feel guilty for needing help. Choice B focuses on external resources without addressing the client's worries directly. Choice C suggests a psychological referral without exploring the client's concerns further. Therefore, the correct response is to gather more information to provide personalized support.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client before surgery. Which assessments contraindicate the client from having surgery as scheduled? (Select one that does not apply.)

• A. Potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L
• B. International normalized ratio (INR) of 4
• C. Prothrombin time (PT) of 30 seconds
• D. Positive pregnancy test

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Prothrombin time (PT) of 30 seconds. A low potassium level (choice A) and an elevated INR (choice B) indicate potential bleeding risks during surgery. A positive pregnancy test (choice D) in a female client can lead to complications during surgery. However, a Prothrombin time of 30 seconds is within the normal range and does not contraindicate the client from having surgery as scheduled.

5. While taking the history of an older adult client, which assessment finding alerts the nurse that the client needs further assessment for fluid or electrolyte imbalance?

• A. "I am often cold and need to wear a sweater."?
• B. "I seem to urinate more when I drink coffee."?
• C. "In the summer, I feel thirsty more often."?
• D. "My rings seem to be tighter this week."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'My rings seem to be tighter this week.' This assessment finding indicates possible fluid retention, which can be a sign of fluid or electrolyte imbalance in an older adult. Choices A, B, and C do not specifically point towards fluid or electrolyte imbalance. Feeling cold, increased urination with coffee consumption, and feeling thirsty in the summer are not direct indicators of fluid or electrolyte imbalance in this context.

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