Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is to administer a unit of whole blood to a postoperative client. What does the nurse do to ensure the safety of the blood transfusion?

• A. Asks the client to both say and spell their full name before starting the blood transfusion
• B. Ensures that another qualified healthcare professional checks the unit before administering
• C. Checks the blood identification numbers with the laboratory technician at the Blood Bank at the time it is dispersed
• D. Ensures that all staff wear appropriate personal protective equipment during the transfusion process

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ensuring the safety of a blood transfusion is crucial to prevent potential errors or adverse reactions. Checking the blood identification numbers with the laboratory technician at the Blood Bank when the blood is dispersed helps confirm that the correct blood product is being administered to the right patient, reducing the risk of transfusion reactions. The other choices are incorrect because asking the client to say and spell their full name (Choice A) is a part of the identification process but not specific to ensuring the safety of the blood transfusion. While having another qualified healthcare professional check the unit (Choice B) is a good practice, the direct verification with the Blood Bank technician is a more critical step in ensuring the correct blood product is administered. Choice D is irrelevant to ensuring the safety of the blood transfusion as it addresses infection control measures.

2. The healthcare provider is assessing a client before surgery. Which assessments contraindicate the client from having surgery as scheduled? (Select one that does not apply.)

• A. Potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L
• B. International normalized ratio (INR) of 4
• C. Prothrombin time (PT) of 30 seconds
• D. Positive pregnancy test

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Prothrombin time (PT) of 30 seconds. A low potassium level (choice A) and an elevated INR (choice B) indicate potential bleeding risks during surgery. A positive pregnancy test (choice D) in a female client can lead to complications during surgery. However, a Prothrombin time of 30 seconds is within the normal range and does not contraindicate the client from having surgery as scheduled.

3. A client is hospitalized with a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which clinical manifestation alerts the nurse to the possibility of a complication from the UTI?

• A. Burning on urination
• B. Cloudy, dark urine
• C. Fever and chills
• D. Hematuria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Fever and chills are systemic symptoms that may indicate a more severe infection or a complication of a urinary tract infection (UTI). While burning on urination and cloudy, dark urine are common symptoms of UTI, fever and chills suggest a more serious condition requiring immediate attention. Hematuria, which is blood in the urine, is also a concerning symptom but is more indicative of inflammation or infection rather than a complication.

4. The nurse assesses distended neck veins in a client sitting in a chair to eat. What intervention is the nurse's priority?

• A. Document the observation in the chart.
• B. Measure urine specific gravity and volume.
• C. Assess the pulse and blood pressure.
• D. Assess the client's deep tendon reflexes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the pulse and blood pressure. Distended neck veins can indicate fluid volume overload or heart failure, which can lead to hemodynamic instability. Assessing the pulse and blood pressure will provide immediate information on the client's cardiovascular status. Documenting the observation in the chart (choice A) is important but not the priority when immediate assessment is needed. Measuring urine specific gravity and volume (choice B) is important for assessing renal function but is not the priority in this situation. Assessing the client's deep tendon reflexes (choice D) is not relevant to addressing distended neck veins in a client sitting to eat.

5. The healthcare professional is assessing a client with hypertension. Which client outcome is indicative of effective hypertension management?

• A. Absence of pedal edema in the lower legs.
• B. Absence of complaints of sexual dysfunction.
• C. No indication of renal impairment.
• D. Blood pressure reading of 148/94 mm Hg.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'No indication of renal impairment.' Effective hypertension management aims to prevent complications such as renal impairment. Checking for signs of kidney issues, like abnormal renal function tests, is crucial in monitoring the client's condition. Choices A, B, and D are not specific indicators of effective hypertension management. Pedal edema, sexual dysfunction, and a single blood pressure reading are important but do not solely determine the effectiveness of managing hypertension.

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