Nursing Elites

1. A client is hospitalized with a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which clinical manifestation alerts the nurse to the possibility of a complication from the UTI?

• A. Burning on urination
• B. Cloudy, dark urine
• C. Fever and chills
• D. Hematuria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Fever and chills are systemic symptoms that may indicate a more severe infection or a complication of a urinary tract infection (UTI). While burning on urination and cloudy, dark urine are common symptoms of UTI, fever and chills suggest a more serious condition requiring immediate attention. Hematuria, which is blood in the urine, is also a concerning symptom but is more indicative of inflammation or infection rather than a complication.

2. The healthcare provider is assessing a client before surgery. Which assessments contraindicate the client from having surgery as scheduled? (Select one that does not apply.)

• A. Potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L
• B. International normalized ratio (INR) of 4
• C. Prothrombin time (PT) of 30 seconds
• D. Positive pregnancy test

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Prothrombin time (PT) of 30 seconds. A low potassium level (choice A) and an elevated INR (choice B) indicate potential bleeding risks during surgery. A positive pregnancy test (choice D) in a female client can lead to complications during surgery. However, a Prothrombin time of 30 seconds is within the normal range and does not contraindicate the client from having surgery as scheduled.

3. A client is diagnosed with varicella (chickenpox). The nurse places the client on which precautions?

• A. Airborne
• B. Standard
• C. Contact
• D. Droplet

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Airborne.' Varicella (chickenpox) is caused by the varicella-zoster virus, which spreads through the air by respiratory droplets. Therefore, placing the client on airborne precautions is necessary to prevent the transmission of the virus. Choice B, 'Standard precautions,' involve basic infection prevention measures that are used for all client care. Choice C, 'Contact precautions,' are used for diseases that spread by direct or indirect contact. Choice D, 'Droplet precautions,' are implemented for diseases transmitted by respiratory droplets that are larger than 5 microns.

4. The nurse assesses distended neck veins in a client sitting in a chair to eat. What intervention is the nurse's priority?

• A. Document the observation in the chart.
• B. Measure urine specific gravity and volume.
• C. Assess the pulse and blood pressure.
• D. Assess the client's deep tendon reflexes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the pulse and blood pressure. Distended neck veins can indicate fluid volume overload or heart failure, which can lead to hemodynamic instability. Assessing the pulse and blood pressure will provide immediate information on the client's cardiovascular status. Documenting the observation in the chart (choice A) is important but not the priority when immediate assessment is needed. Measuring urine specific gravity and volume (choice B) is important for assessing renal function but is not the priority in this situation. Assessing the client's deep tendon reflexes (choice D) is not relevant to addressing distended neck veins in a client sitting to eat.

5. A client who has a head injury is transported to the emergency department. Which assessment does the emergency department nurse perform immediately?

• A. Pupil response
• B. Motor function
• C. Respiratory status
• D. Short-term memory

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with a head injury, assessing the respiratory status is the priority as airway and breathing are essential for life. Immediate attention to respiratory status is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation. While assessing pupil response and motor function are also important in head injuries, ensuring the client's ability to breathe takes precedence. Short-term memory assessment is not a priority in the emergent phase of care for a client with a head injury.

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