Nursing Elites

1. What is the amount of tension the ventricle must develop during contraction to eject blood from the left ventricle into the aorta?

• A. Afterload
• B. Preload
• C. Automaticity
• D. Ejection fraction

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Afterload is the correct answer because it refers to the pressure or tension that the ventricle must overcome during systole to eject blood into the aorta. Preload, on the other hand, is the degree of stretch of the ventricular muscle at the end of diastole before it contracts. Automaticity is the ability of the heart to generate electrical impulses independently, and ejection fraction is the percentage of blood pumped out of the ventricle with each heartbeat. Therefore, in the context of the question, afterload best describes the amount of tension the ventricle must develop to eject blood into the aorta.

2. The nurse is caring for a client on warfarin with an INR of 1.8. What is the most appropriate action?

• A. Increase the dose of warfarin.
• B. Administer vitamin K.
• C. Hold the warfarin and notify the healthcare provider.
• D. Monitor the client’s INR closely.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An INR of 1.8 is below the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, indicating the need for monitoring closely to ensure that the INR levels reach the desired therapeutic range. Increasing the dose of warfarin (Choice A) without proper monitoring may lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Administering vitamin K (Choice B) is not typically recommended unless the client is experiencing major bleeding or requires rapid reversal of warfarin's effects. Holding the warfarin and notifying the healthcare provider (Choice C) may be necessary in certain situations, but the immediate action in this case should be to monitor the client's INR closely to guide further management.

3. Which term describes an abnormal heartbeat that can be either too fast or too slow?

• A. Arrhythmia
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Conductivity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Arrhythmia. Arrhythmia is a broad term that refers to any irregularity in the heart's rhythm, which can manifest as a heartbeat that is too fast (tachycardia), too slow (bradycardia), or irregular. Choice B, Bradycardia, specifically denotes a slow heart rate, while choice C, Tachycardia, refers to a fast heart rate. Choice D, Conductivity, is not the correct term to describe an abnormal heartbeat characterized by speed irregularities.

4. The nurse is teaching a client about the side effects of beta blockers. What is the most important side effect to monitor?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important side effect to monitor when a client is on beta blockers is hypotension. Beta blockers can cause a significant drop in blood pressure, especially at the initiation of therapy. Monitoring for hypotension is crucial to prevent complications such as dizziness, syncope, or falls. While bradycardia can also occur with beta blockers, hypotension takes precedence due to its immediate impact on perfusion. Hyperkalemia is not a common side effect of beta blockers. Tachycardia is actually a condition that beta blockers aim to treat, so it is not a side effect to monitor.

5. The client on furosemide (Lasix) is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypernatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is a significant risk associated with diuretic use. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypernatremia (choice D) are related to sodium levels, not potassium levels affected by furosemide.

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