Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer heparin to a client. What lab value should be monitored?

• A. PT/INR
• B. aPTT
• C. Platelet count
• D. Hemoglobin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct lab value that should be monitored when administering heparin is the aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time). Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and aPTT is a sensitive measure to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Monitoring aPTT helps in adjusting the heparin dose to maintain the desired anticoagulant effect. PT/INR is more specific to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count and hemoglobin levels are important parameters to assess bleeding tendencies and oxygen-carrying capacity but are not directly related to monitoring heparin therapy.

2. Which chronic condition is characterized by abnormally thickened heart muscle, making it harder for the heart to pump blood efficiently?

• A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
• B. Dilated cardiomyopathy
• C. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
• D. Ventricular hypertrophy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is the correct answer. In this condition, the heart muscle becomes abnormally thickened, leading to difficulties in pumping blood efficiently. Dilated cardiomyopathy (choice B) involves the enlargement of the heart chambers, not thickening of the heart muscle. Restrictive cardiomyopathy (choice C) is characterized by stiffening of the heart muscle, impairing its ability to fill properly. Ventricular hypertrophy (choice D) refers to the thickening of the heart's ventricle walls, which can result from various conditions, not solely hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.

3. What is the approximate stroke volume of the heart?

• A. Approximately 60 mL of blood per beat
• B. Approximately 70 mL of blood per beat
• C. Approximately 80 mL of blood per beat
• D. Approximately 90 mL of blood per beat

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Approximately 70 mL of blood per beat. The stroke volume of the heart is typically around 70 mL, indicating the volume of blood ejected from the left ventricle with each contraction. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not represent the standard approximate stroke volume of the heart, which is around 70 mL per beat.

4. What is a procedure to remove fluid or air from the pleural space to help a patient breathe easier?

• A. Thoracentesis
• B. Bronchoscopy
• C. Chest X-ray
• D. CT scan

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! Thoracentesis is the correct answer. It is a procedure where fluid or air is removed from the pleural space in the chest to help the patient breathe more easily. Bronchoscopy (choice B) is a procedure to visualize the airways, while Chest X-ray (choice C) and CT scan (choice D) are imaging tests and do not involve the removal of fluid or air from the pleural space.

5. What term describes the phenomenon wherein decreased BP causes a reflex SNS response with increased pulse, increased contractility, and vasoconstriction; and increased BP causes reflex vagal responses resulting in decreased heart rate and passive vasodilation in the systemic arterioles?

• A. Baroreflex
• B. Cheyne-Stokes breathing
• C. Frank-Starling Law
• D. Starling reflex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Baroreflex. The Baroreflex is a mechanism by which the body maintains blood pressure homeostasis through reflexive adjustments in heart rate and vascular tone. Choice B, Cheyne-Stokes breathing, is a pattern of breathing characterized by progressively deeper and sometimes faster breathing, followed by a gradual decrease that results in a temporary stop in breathing. Choices C and D, Frank-Starling Law and Starling reflex, are related to the intrinsic ability of the heart to adjust its output based on venous return, not specifically regulating blood pressure through reflex adjustments in heart rate and vascular tone as seen in the described phenomenon.

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