Nursing Elites

1. Which term describes a type of abnormal heart rhythm characterized by rapid and irregular beating of the atria?

• A. Atrial fibrillation
• B. Ventricular fibrillation
• C. Atrial flutter
• D. Sinus tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Atrial fibrillation. Atrial fibrillation is indeed a type of abnormal heart rhythm characterized by rapid and irregular beating of the atria. This condition can increase the risk of stroke and heart failure. Choice B, Ventricular fibrillation, is incorrect because it refers to a life-threatening arrhythmia that occurs in the ventricles, not the atria. Choice C, Atrial flutter, is incorrect as it describes a different type of atrial arrhythmia characterized by a regular but fast heartbeat. Choice D, Sinus tachycardia, is incorrect because it is a normal increase in heart rate originating from the sinus node, not an abnormal rhythm.

2. The nurse is teaching a client about side effects of ACE inhibitors. What is the most important side effect to monitor?

• A. Cough
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypotension
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough. ACE inhibitors commonly cause a persistent dry cough in patients. This side effect is important to monitor because it can indicate the development of angioedema, a serious adverse reaction that requires immediate medical attention. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is a potential side effect of ACE inhibitors but is not typically the most important one to monitor. Hypotension (choice C) and dizziness (choice D) are also possible side effects of ACE inhibitors, but they are not as critical to monitor as the development of a persistent cough.

3. The nurse is administering an ACE inhibitor to a client. What is the most common side effect?

• A. Cough
• B. Dizziness
• C. Hypotension
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough. Cough is a well-known side effect of ACE inhibitors due to an increase in bradykinin levels. This irritating cough can be bothersome to clients and should be monitored. Choice B, Dizziness, is not the most common side effect of ACE inhibitors. While ACE inhibitors can cause hypotension (Choice C), cough is more prevalent. Hyperkalemia (Choice D) is a possible side effect of ACE inhibitors but is less common compared to cough.

4. When administering enoxaparin (Lovenox) to a client for DVT prophylaxis, what is the most important lab value to monitor?

• A. Platelet count
• B. PT/INR
• C. aPTT
• D. Hemoglobin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Platelet count. When administering enoxaparin (Lovenox) for DVT prophylaxis, it is crucial to monitor the platelet count as enoxaparin can lead to thrombocytopenia, a decrease in platelet levels. Monitoring the platelet count helps in early detection of this potential adverse effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because PT/INR, aPTT, and hemoglobin levels are not the most important lab values to monitor specifically for enoxaparin administration and DVT prophylaxis.

5. During which process does coronary artery blood flow to the myocardium occur during diastole, when coronary vascular resistance is reduced?

• A. Coronary perfusion pressure
• B. Coronary vascular resistance
• C. Diastolic filling
• D. Ventricular ejection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Coronary perfusion pressure. Coronary perfusion pressure refers to the process of coronary artery blood flow to the myocardium during diastole when coronary vascular resistance is reduced. This process ensures that the myocardium receives sufficient oxygen and nutrients for proper functioning. Choice B, Coronary vascular resistance, is the opposite of what is described in the question. During coronary perfusion, resistance is reduced to enhance blood flow. Choices C and D, Diastolic filling and Ventricular ejection, do not directly relate to the process of coronary artery blood flow during diastole.

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