Nursing Elites

1. Which condition is characterized by the narrowing or blockage of arteries that supply blood to the heart by plaque?

• A. Coronary artery disease (CAD)
• B. Atherosclerosis
• C. Peripheral artery disease
• D. Congestive heart failure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Coronary artery disease (CAD). CAD specifically refers to the condition where the arteries supplying blood to the heart become narrowed or blocked by plaque buildup. Choice B, Atherosclerosis, is a general term for the hardening and narrowing of arteries due to plaque buildup but does not specifically mention the heart. Choice C, Peripheral artery disease, involves narrowing of arteries that supply blood to areas other than the heart. Choice D, Congestive heart failure, is a condition where the heart is unable to pump blood effectively but is not primarily caused by narrowed or blocked arteries.

2. When administering an ACE inhibitor to a client with heart failure, what is the expected outcome of this medication?

• A. Decreased blood pressure
• B. Increased heart rate
• C. Increased cardiac output
• D. Decreased heart rate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased cardiac output. ACE inhibitors are commonly used in heart failure to reduce the workload on the heart by decreasing blood pressure and increasing cardiac output. This ultimately helps improve the heart's efficiency and function. Choice A is incorrect because ACE inhibitors generally lead to a reduction in blood pressure. Choice B is incorrect as ACE inhibitors do not increase heart rate. Choice D is incorrect as ACE inhibitors do not typically decrease heart rate in the context of heart failure.

3. The client on furosemide is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is a significant risk associated with the use of diuretics. Choice B, Hypernatremia, is incorrect as furosemide is not known to cause high sodium levels. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is also incorrect as furosemide tends to cause potassium depletion rather than excess. Choice D, Hyponatremia, is not directly related to furosemide use.

4. When administering enoxaparin (Lovenox) to a client, what is the most important lab value to monitor?

• A. Platelet count
• B. aPTT
• C. Hemoglobin
• D. INR

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Platelet count. When administering enoxaparin (Lovenox), it is crucial to monitor the platelet count because enoxaparin can cause a rare but serious side effect known as heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, which is a decrease in platelet count that can lead to increased risk of bleeding. Monitoring the platelet count allows for early detection of this potential complication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because aPTT, Hemoglobin, and INR are not the most important lab values to monitor specifically when administering enoxaparin.

5. The nurse is caring for a client on enalapril (Vasotec). What is the most important side effect to monitor?

• A. Cough
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypotension
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough. Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor, and cough is a common side effect associated with this class of medication. Monitoring for cough is crucial as it can indicate the development of a potentially serious condition known as angioedema. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is a possible side effect of ACE inhibitors but is not the most important side effect to monitor. Hypotension (choice C) and dizziness (choice D) are also potential side effects of enalapril; however, cough takes precedence due to its association with angioedema, a severe adverse reaction.

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