Nursing Elites

1. What test evaluates the heart's response to physical stress, often involving exercise on a treadmill while monitoring the heart?

• A. Stress test
• B. Echocardiogram
• C. Holter monitor
• D. CT angiography

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A stress test, also known as an exercise stress test, evaluates the heart's response to physical stress by monitoring its activity during exercise, typically on a treadmill. This test helps assess the heart's performance, detect coronary artery disease, and evaluate the effectiveness of heart treatments. Echocardiogram (choice B) is an ultrasound of the heart that provides detailed images of the heart's structure and function, but it does not involve physical stress like a stress test. Holter monitor (choice C) is a device for continuously monitoring the heart's rhythm and rate over a period (usually 24-48 hours), not during exercise. CT angiography (choice D) is a diagnostic test that uses X-rays to visualize blood vessels but does not involve physical stress like a stress test.

2. Which term describes an abnormal heartbeat that can be either too fast or too slow?

• A. Arrhythmia
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Conductivity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Arrhythmia. Arrhythmia is a broad term that refers to any irregularity in the heart's rhythm, which can manifest as a heartbeat that is too fast (tachycardia), too slow (bradycardia), or irregular. Choice B, Bradycardia, specifically denotes a slow heart rate, while choice C, Tachycardia, refers to a fast heart rate. Choice D, Conductivity, is not the correct term to describe an abnormal heartbeat characterized by speed irregularities.

3. What is a condition where the lungs become stiff and scarred, making it difficult to breathe and get enough oxygen into the bloodstream?

• A. Pulmonary fibrosis
• B. Pulmonary edema
• C. Pulmonary embolism
• D. Pulmonary hypertension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pulmonary fibrosis is a condition characterized by the stiffening and scarring of the lungs, leading to difficulty breathing and impairing the transfer of oxygen into the bloodstream. Pulmonary edema refers to fluid accumulation in the lungs, causing breathing difficulties due to fluid filling the air sacs. Pulmonary embolism is a blockage in one of the pulmonary arteries in the lungs, often caused by a blood clot. Pulmonary hypertension is high blood pressure in the arteries of the lungs, which can lead to strain on the heart and affect oxygen levels in the blood.

4. The client on spironolactone should avoid which of the following?

• A. Foods high in potassium
• B. Foods high in sodium
• C. Foods high in calcium
• D. Foods high in chloride

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Foods high in potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium. Consuming foods high in potassium while on spironolactone can lead to an excess of potassium in the body, potentially causing hyperkalemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone does not directly interact with sodium, calcium, or chloride in a way that would require specific dietary restrictions related to these minerals.

5. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer heparin to a client. What lab value should be monitored?

• A. PT/INR
• B. aPTT
• C. Platelet count
• D. Hemoglobin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct lab value that should be monitored when administering heparin is the aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time). Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and aPTT is a sensitive measure to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Monitoring aPTT helps in adjusting the heparin dose to maintain the desired anticoagulant effect. PT/INR is more specific to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count and hemoglobin levels are important parameters to assess bleeding tendencies and oxygen-carrying capacity but are not directly related to monitoring heparin therapy.

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