this is a test that evaluates the hearts response to physical stress often involving exercise on a treadmill while monitoring the heart
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Physical Exam Cardiovascular System

1. What test evaluates the heart's response to physical stress, often involving exercise on a treadmill while monitoring the heart?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A stress test, also known as an exercise stress test, evaluates the heart's response to physical stress by monitoring its activity during exercise, typically on a treadmill. This test helps assess the heart's performance, detect coronary artery disease, and evaluate the effectiveness of heart treatments. Echocardiogram (choice B) is an ultrasound of the heart that provides detailed images of the heart's structure and function, but it does not involve physical stress like a stress test. Holter monitor (choice C) is a device for continuously monitoring the heart's rhythm and rate over a period (usually 24-48 hours), not during exercise. CT angiography (choice D) is a diagnostic test that uses X-rays to visualize blood vessels but does not involve physical stress like a stress test.

2. The client on nitroglycerin patches reports dizziness when standing up. What is the nurse’s best response?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to rise slowly to prevent dizziness. Dizziness when standing up can be a sign of orthostatic hypotension, a common side effect of nitroglycerin. Rising slowly can help minimize this symptom. Instructing the client to discontinue the nitroglycerin patches (Choice B) is not appropriate without consulting a healthcare provider as sudden discontinuation can lead to adverse effects. Encouraging the client to rest and avoid physical activity (Choice C) does not address the specific issue of orthostatic hypotension. Suggesting the client take an over-the-counter antiemetic (Choice D) is not indicated for dizziness related to orthostatic hypotension.

3. This heart condition is characterized by decreased cardiac output and tissue perfusion, which can lead to organ failure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cardiogenic shock. Cardiogenic shock is a severe condition characterized by the heart's inability to pump enough blood, leading to decreased cardiac output and tissue perfusion, which can result in organ failure. Choice B, Myocardial infarction, specifically refers to a blockage of blood flow to the heart muscle. Choices C and D, Endocarditis and Pericarditis, do not directly involve decreased cardiac output leading to organ failure, making them incorrect in the context of the symptoms described in the question.

4. The nurse is caring for a client on heparin. What is the most important lab value to monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: aPTT. When a client is on heparin therapy, monitoring the aPTT is crucial. The aPTT helps assess the effectiveness of heparin in preventing blood clots and guides dose adjustments as needed. INR (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy. Platelet count (Choice C) is important to assess for potential bleeding disorders or thrombocytopenia but is not the primary lab value to monitor for heparin therapy. Hemoglobin (Choice D) is essential for assessing oxygen-carrying capacity but is not the most important lab value to monitor when a client is on heparin.

5. What is a device that delivers a fine spray of medication into the airways?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A nebulizer is a device that converts liquid medication into a fine mist, allowing it to be inhaled directly into the lungs. This makes it the correct answer to the question. Choice B, an inhaler, delivers medication in a different form - as a pressurized dose that needs to be inhaled. Choice C, an oxygen concentrator, is used to deliver oxygen to patients with breathing difficulties but does not deliver medication. Choice D, a peak flow meter, is used to measure how fast air can be blown out of the lungs and is not involved in delivering medication.

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