ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Exam Questions
1. The nurse is administering a calcium channel blocker. What is the primary effect of this medication on the cardiovascular system?
- A. Decreases heart rate
- B. Increases heart rate
- C. Increases blood pressure
- D. Decreases blood pressure
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreases blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers primarily work by relaxing the blood vessels, leading to a decrease in blood pressure. Choice A, 'Decreases heart rate,' is incorrect because calcium channel blockers do not significantly affect heart rate. Choice B, 'Increases heart rate,' is incorrect as calcium channel blockers do not have a primary effect of increasing heart rate. Choice C, 'Increases blood pressure,' is incorrect as the primary effect of calcium channel blockers is to decrease blood pressure by vasodilation.
2. What is a condition where the walls of the arteries become thickened and stiff, often due to the buildup of plaque, leading to reduced blood flow?
- A. Atherosclerosis
- B. Angina
- C. Hypertension
- D. Arrhythmia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Atherosclerosis is the correct answer. It is a condition characterized by the thickening and stiffening of artery walls due to plaque buildup, which restricts blood flow. Angina (choice B) is chest pain or discomfort caused by reduced blood flow to the heart. Hypertension (choice C) is high blood pressure, not directly related to arterial wall thickening. Arrhythmia (choice D) refers to irregular heart rhythms and is not specifically linked to artery wall changes like atherosclerosis.
3. This is a type of therapy that involves removing fluid from the lungs, typically through the use of diuretics.
- A. Diuretic therapy
- B. Oxygen therapy
- C. Inhaler therapy
- D. Antihistamine therapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diuretic therapy. Diuretic therapy involves the use of medications that help remove excess fluid from the body, often used to treat conditions like pulmonary edema. Choice B, Oxygen therapy, is used to provide oxygen to patients with breathing difficulties but does not involve removing fluid from the lungs. Choice C, Inhaler therapy, is used to deliver medication directly to the lungs to help with respiratory conditions but does not focus on removing fluid. Choice D, Antihistamine therapy, is used to treat allergies by blocking histamine but is not related to removing fluid from the lungs.
4. The nurse is caring for a client on warfarin with an INR of 5.2. What is the most appropriate action?
- A. Administer vitamin K as an antidote.
- B. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
- C. Increase the dose of warfarin.
- D. Monitor the client’s INR closely.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An INR of 5.2 is elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. Administering vitamin K can help reverse the effects of warfarin, which is the most appropriate action in this situation. Holding the next dose of warfarin is not enough to address the high INR, and increasing the dose would further elevate the INR level. Monitoring the INR closely is important, but in this case, immediate action is needed to counteract the anticoagulant effects of warfarin.
5. What is a condition where the heart muscle is weakened and unable to pump blood effectively, often leading to heart failure?
- A. Cardiomyopathy
- B. Myocarditis
- C. Endocarditis
- D. Pericarditis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Cardiomyopathy is the correct answer. In cardiomyopathy, the heart muscle becomes weak and cannot pump blood effectively, which can lead to heart failure. Myocarditis (choice B) is inflammation of the heart muscle, not specifically causing muscle weakness. Endocarditis (choice C) is an infection of the inner lining of the heart chambers and valves. Pericarditis (choice D) is inflammation of the pericardium, the outer lining of the heart.
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