Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is administering a calcium channel blocker. What is the primary effect of this medication on the cardiovascular system?

• A. Decreases heart rate
• B. Increases heart rate
• C. Increases blood pressure
• D. Decreases blood pressure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreases blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers primarily work by relaxing the blood vessels, leading to a decrease in blood pressure. Choice A, 'Decreases heart rate,' is incorrect because calcium channel blockers do not significantly affect heart rate. Choice B, 'Increases heart rate,' is incorrect as calcium channel blockers do not have a primary effect of increasing heart rate. Choice C, 'Increases blood pressure,' is incorrect as the primary effect of calcium channel blockers is to decrease blood pressure by vasodilation.

2. Which condition is characterized by an inability to effectively pump blood, leading to fluid buildup and swelling in the body?

• A. Heart failure
• B. Cardiomyopathy
• C. Angina
• D. Myocarditis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Heart failure is the correct answer. It is a condition where the heart is unable to pump blood effectively, resulting in fluid accumulation and swelling in the body. Cardiomyopathy is a disease of the heart muscle that affects its ability to pump blood but is not the specific condition described in the question. Angina is chest pain or discomfort caused by reduced blood flow to the heart, not directly related to fluid buildup and swelling. Myocarditis is inflammation of the heart muscle and does not necessarily involve the inability to pump blood effectively.

3. What test measures the electrical activity of the heart and can detect heart rhythm problems?

• A. Electrocardiogram (ECG or EKG)
• B. Chest X-ray
• C. MRI
• D. CT scan

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Electrocardiogram (ECG or EKG). An electrocardiogram is a test that measures the electrical activity of the heart and can detect irregularities in heart rhythm. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because a chest X-ray, MRI, and CT scan do not specifically measure the electrical activity of the heart or detect heart rhythm problems.

4. The nurse is caring for a client on heparin. What is the most important lab value to monitor?

• A. aPTT
• B. INR
• C. Platelet count
• D. Hemoglobin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: aPTT. When a client is on heparin therapy, monitoring the aPTT is crucial. The aPTT helps assess the effectiveness of heparin in preventing blood clots and guides dose adjustments as needed. INR (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy. Platelet count (Choice C) is important to assess for potential bleeding disorders or thrombocytopenia but is not the primary lab value to monitor for heparin therapy. Hemoglobin (Choice D) is essential for assessing oxygen-carrying capacity but is not the most important lab value to monitor when a client is on heparin.

5. What procedure is used to visualize the airways and diagnose lung disease?

• A. Bronchoscopy
• B. Thoracentesis
• C. Pulmonary function test
• D. Chest X-ray

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bronchoscopy is the correct answer because it is a procedure specifically designed to visualize the airways and diagnose lung diseases by allowing doctors to examine the inside of the airways. Thoracentesis involves the removal of fluid from the pleural space around the lungs, not the airways. Pulmonary function tests assess how well the lungs work but do not visualize the airways directly. A chest X-ray provides an image of the lungs and surrounding structures but does not involve direct visualization of the airways.

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