ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Exam Questions
1. The nurse is administering a calcium channel blocker. What is the primary effect of this medication on the cardiovascular system?
- A. Decreases heart rate
- B. Increases heart rate
- C. Increases blood pressure
- D. Decreases blood pressure
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreases blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers primarily work by relaxing the blood vessels, leading to a decrease in blood pressure. Choice A, 'Decreases heart rate,' is incorrect because calcium channel blockers do not significantly affect heart rate. Choice B, 'Increases heart rate,' is incorrect as calcium channel blockers do not have a primary effect of increasing heart rate. Choice C, 'Increases blood pressure,' is incorrect as the primary effect of calcium channel blockers is to decrease blood pressure by vasodilation.
2. The nurse is caring for a client on enalapril (Vasotec). What is the most important side effect to monitor?
- A. Cough
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hypotension
- D. Dizziness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough. Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor, and cough is a common side effect associated with this class of medication. Monitoring for cough is crucial as it can indicate the development of a potentially serious condition known as angioedema. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is a possible side effect of ACE inhibitors but is not the most important side effect to monitor. Hypotension (choice C) and dizziness (choice D) are also potential side effects of enalapril; however, cough takes precedence due to its association with angioedema, a severe adverse reaction.
3. What test measures the electrical activity of the heart to detect arrhythmias and other heart conditions?
- A. Electrocardiogram (ECG or EKG)
- B. Chest X-ray
- C. Stress test
- D. Arterial blood gas (ABG)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An electrocardiogram (ECG or EKG) is used to measure the heart's electrical activity, aiding in the detection of arrhythmias and other heart conditions. Choice B, a chest X-ray, is not used to measure electrical activity but to visualize the structures of the chest. Choice C, a stress test, evaluates the heart's response to exertion and is not primarily focused on measuring electrical activity. Choice D, an arterial blood gas (ABG) test, is used to assess oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in the blood, not the heart's electrical activity.
4. The client on nitroglycerin complains of a headache. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?
- A. Administer acetaminophen as prescribed for the headache.
- B. Hold the next dose of nitroglycerin.
- C. Discontinue the nitroglycerin immediately.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is to administer acetaminophen as prescribed for the headache. Headaches are a common side effect of nitroglycerin due to vasodilation. Administering acetaminophen can help relieve the headache. Holding the next dose of nitroglycerin (Choice B) may not address the current headache, and discontinuing nitroglycerin immediately (Choice C) without healthcare provider guidance can be dangerous due to the potential for rebound hypertension. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (Choice D) is not necessary for a common side effect like a headache, and the nurse can manage this symptom independently.
5. The client on furosemide (Lasix) is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypernatremia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is a significant risk associated with diuretic use. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypernatremia (choice D) are related to sodium levels, not potassium levels affected by furosemide.
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