ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Exam Questions
1. The nurse is administering a calcium channel blocker. What is the primary effect of this medication on the cardiovascular system?
- A. Decreases heart rate
- B. Increases heart rate
- C. Increases blood pressure
- D. Decreases blood pressure
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreases blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers primarily work by relaxing the blood vessels, leading to a decrease in blood pressure. Choice A, 'Decreases heart rate,' is incorrect because calcium channel blockers do not significantly affect heart rate. Choice B, 'Increases heart rate,' is incorrect as calcium channel blockers do not have a primary effect of increasing heart rate. Choice C, 'Increases blood pressure,' is incorrect as the primary effect of calcium channel blockers is to decrease blood pressure by vasodilation.
2. The client is on a calcium channel blocker. What is the expected effect on the heart?
- A. Increased heart rate
- B. Decreased heart rate
- C. Increased blood pressure
- D. Decreased blood pressure
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client is on a calcium channel blocker, the expected effect on the heart is a decreased heart rate and decreased blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers work by dilating blood vessels and reducing the heart's workload, resulting in decreased blood pressure. Choice A, increased heart rate, is incorrect as calcium channel blockers actually have a negative chronotropic effect, reducing the heart rate. Choice C, increased blood pressure, is also incorrect because these medications are used to lower blood pressure.
3. The client is on amiodarone and reports blurred vision. What is the nurse’s best response?
- A. Reassure the client that this is a common side effect.
- B. Instruct the client to report this symptom to the healthcare provider immediately.
- C. Advise the client to stop taking the medication.
- D. Discontinue the amiodarone immediately.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Blurred vision is a potential side effect of amiodarone. Instructing the client to report this symptom to the healthcare provider immediately is the most appropriate response. Choice A is incorrect because although blurred vision can be a common side effect of amiodarone, it should not be dismissed without further evaluation. Choice C is incorrect as advising the client to stop taking the medication without consulting the healthcare provider can be dangerous and is not the first course of action. Choice D is too drastic as discontinuing the medication should be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider after proper evaluation.
4. The client on furosemide (Lasix) is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypernatremia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is a significant risk associated with diuretic use. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypernatremia (choice D) are related to sodium levels, not potassium levels affected by furosemide.
5. What is the procedure where a device is used to shock the heart back into a normal rhythm during a life-threatening arrhythmia?
- A. Defibrillation
- B. Cardioversion
- C. Echocardiogram
- D. Ablation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Defibrillation. Defibrillation is the procedure of using a device to deliver an electric shock to the heart during life-threatening arrhythmias like ventricular fibrillation or ventricular tachycardia to restore a normal rhythm. Choice B, Cardioversion, is similar but is typically used for less severe arrhythmias. Choice C, Echocardiogram, is a diagnostic test that uses sound waves to create images of the heart. Choice D, Ablation, is a procedure to treat certain types of arrhythmias by scarring or destroying tissue that triggers abnormal electrical signals.
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