Nursing Elites

1. What is the condition where the pericardium, the sac surrounding the heart, becomes inflamed, leading to chest pain and other symptoms?

• A. Pericarditis
• B. Myocarditis
• C. Endocarditis
• D. Pulmonary hypertension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pericarditis is the correct answer. It is the inflammation of the pericardium, the sac surrounding the heart, which can lead to chest pain and other symptoms. Myocarditis (choice B) is inflammation of the heart muscle, not the pericardium. Endocarditis (choice C) is inflammation of the inner lining of the heart chambers and valves, not the pericardium. Pulmonary hypertension (choice D) is high blood pressure in the arteries of the lungs, not related to pericardial inflammation.

2. The nurse is teaching a client about the side effects of beta blockers. What is the most important side effect to monitor?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important side effect to monitor when a client is on beta blockers is hypotension. Beta blockers can cause a significant drop in blood pressure, especially at the initiation of therapy. Monitoring for hypotension is crucial to prevent complications such as dizziness, syncope, or falls. While bradycardia can also occur with beta blockers, hypotension takes precedence due to its immediate impact on perfusion. Hyperkalemia is not a common side effect of beta blockers. Tachycardia is actually a condition that beta blockers aim to treat, so it is not a side effect to monitor.

3. What is the primary effect of a calcium channel blocker on the heart?

• A. Decreases heart rate
• B. Increases heart rate
• C. Increases blood pressure
• D. Decreases blood pressure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreases blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers primarily work by relaxing blood vessels, leading to a decrease in blood pressure. While these medications can have secondary effects on the heart, such as reducing the workload of the heart muscle, the primary effect related to blood pressure regulation. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not reflect the primary action of calcium channel blockers on the heart.

4. The client on clopidogrel (Plavix) should be monitored for which adverse effect?

• A. Bleeding
• B. Hypertension
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! Clopidogrel (Plavix) is an antiplatelet medication that helps prevent blood clots. As a side effect, it can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, blood in urine or stools, or prolonged bleeding from cuts, is crucial. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as hypertension, tachycardia, and bradycardia are not typically associated with clopidogrel use.

5. The client is on nitroglycerin patches. What should the nurse include in the client’s education?

• A. Rotate the application site with each new patch.
• B. Apply the patch at the same time each day.
• C. Leave the patch on for 24 hours, then remove it for 12 hours before applying a new one.
• D. Apply the patch to the same site each time.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Rotate the application site with each new patch.' When educating a client using nitroglycerin patches, it is essential to rotate the application site to prevent skin irritation. Choice B is incorrect because applying the patch at the same time each day is not a critical aspect of patch application. Choice C is incorrect as nitroglycerin patches are usually left on for a specific period, typically 12 to 14 hours, before being replaced. Choice D is incorrect because applying the patch to the same site each time can lead to skin irritation and tolerance development.

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