this is a condition where the lungs become scarred and stiff making it difficult to breathe and get enough oxygen into the bloodstream
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Cardiovascular System Practice Exam

1. Which condition is characterized by the lungs becoming scarred and stiff, leading to difficulty breathing and inadequate oxygen intake into the bloodstream?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Pulmonary fibrosis. Pulmonary fibrosis is a lung disease where lung tissue is damaged and scarred, resulting in breathing difficulties and decreased oxygen transfer into the bloodstream. Cystic fibrosis (B) is a genetic disorder primarily affecting the lungs and digestive system, not causing lung scarring. COPD (C) includes conditions like chronic bronchitis and emphysema but doesn't specifically involve lung scarring. Tuberculosis (D) is a bacterial infection that primarily affects the lungs but doesn't cause lung tissue scarring and stiffness as seen in pulmonary fibrosis.

2. What is the term for the ability of cardiac cells to respond to a stimulus by initiating a cardiac impulse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Excitability. Excitability is the ability of cardiac cells to respond to a stimulus by initiating a cardiac impulse. Choice B, Contractility, refers to the ability of cardiac muscle to shorten forcibly. Choice C, Rhythmicity, refers to the cardiac muscle's ability to contract rhythmically. Choice D, Conductivity, refers to the ability of the heart's cells to conduct electrical impulses.

3. The client is on furosemide (Lasix) and has a potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer potassium supplements. A potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia (low potassium levels). Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss. Therefore, the priority action is to administer potassium supplements to correct the imbalance. Option B is incorrect because holding the furosemide without addressing the low potassium level could further worsen the imbalance. Option C is incorrect as continuing the current dose of furosemide without addressing the low potassium level could lead to complications. Option D is incorrect because decreasing the dose of furosemide does not directly address the low potassium level that needs immediate correction.

4. The client on furosemide (Lasix) has a potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a potassium supplement. A potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications like cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, the priority action is to address the low potassium level by administering a potassium supplement. Holding the furosemide (Choice B) may be necessary in the long term to prevent further potassium loss, but the immediate need is to correct the low potassium level. Continuing the current dose of furosemide (Choice C) without addressing the low potassium level can worsen hypokalemia. Administering Digibind (Choice D) is not indicated for low potassium levels; Digibind is used to treat digoxin toxicity.

5. A client on an ACE inhibitor reports a persistent cough. What is the nurse’s best response?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A persistent cough in a client on an ACE inhibitor may indicate a serious side effect that requires discontinuation of the medication. Instructing the client to report the cough to the healthcare provider is essential for proper evaluation and management. Choice A is incorrect because simply reassuring the client may delay necessary action. Choice C is incorrect as using a humidifier may not address the underlying cause of the cough. Choice D is incorrect because taking a cough suppressant without healthcare provider guidance may mask symptoms without addressing the cause.

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