ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Practice Exam
1. Which medication is used to lower high blood pressure and reduce the risk of heart attacks and strokes?
- A. ACE inhibitor
- B. Beta-blocker
- C. Diuretic
- D. Calcium channel blocker
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is an ACE inhibitor. ACE inhibitors are medications specifically designed to lower high blood pressure and reduce the risk of heart attacks, strokes, and other cardiovascular events. Beta-blockers, diuretics, and calcium channel blockers are also used to treat high blood pressure, but ACE inhibitors are particularly effective in reducing the risk of heart attacks and strokes.
2. When administering enoxaparin (Lovenox) to a client, what is the most important lab value to monitor?
- A. Platelet count
- B. aPTT
- C. Hemoglobin
- D. INR
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Platelet count. When administering enoxaparin (Lovenox), it is crucial to monitor the platelet count because enoxaparin can cause a rare but serious side effect known as heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, which is a decrease in platelet count that can lead to increased risk of bleeding. Monitoring the platelet count allows for early detection of this potential complication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because aPTT, Hemoglobin, and INR are not the most important lab values to monitor specifically when administering enoxaparin.
3. Which of the following is a rare but serious condition where the pulmonary arteries become narrowed, increasing the blood pressure in the lungs?
- A. Pulmonary hypertension
- B. Pulmonary embolism
- C. Pulmonary fibrosis
- D. Aortic stenosis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Pulmonary hypertension. Pulmonary hypertension is a rare but serious condition characterized by high blood pressure in the arteries of the lungs, which can lead to heart failure. Pulmonary embolism (choice B) involves a blockage in one of the pulmonary arteries in the lungs. Pulmonary fibrosis (choice C) is a lung disease that causes lung tissue scarring. Aortic stenosis (choice D) is a condition where the aortic valve narrows, affecting blood flow from the heart.
4. The client is receiving digoxin and has a potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Hold the digoxin and notify the healthcare provider.
- B. Increase the dose of digoxin.
- C. Continue the current dose of digoxin.
- D. Administer potassium supplements.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the digoxin and notify the healthcare provider. A potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Holding the medication and informing the healthcare provider is crucial to prevent adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect because increasing the dose of digoxin would further raise the risk of toxicity. Choice C is incorrect as continuing the current dose could exacerbate the toxicity risk. Choice D is incorrect because administering potassium supplements alone is not sufficient to address the potential digoxin toxicity; the first step should be to hold the digoxin and seek further guidance.
5. When administering furosemide (Lasix) to a client, which lab value is most important to monitor?
- A. Potassium
- B. Sodium
- C. Calcium
- D. Chloride
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When administering furosemide (Lasix), it is crucial to monitor potassium levels closely. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels helps prevent adverse effects associated with low potassium, such as cardiac arrhythmias. While monitoring sodium, calcium, and chloride levels may also be important in certain situations, potassium is the most critical to monitor when administering furosemide.
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