Nursing Elites

1. Which medication is used to lower high blood pressure and reduce the risk of heart attacks and strokes?

• A. ACE inhibitor
• B. Beta-blocker
• C. Diuretic
• D. Calcium channel blocker

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is an ACE inhibitor. ACE inhibitors are medications specifically designed to lower high blood pressure and reduce the risk of heart attacks, strokes, and other cardiovascular events. Beta-blockers, diuretics, and calcium channel blockers are also used to treat high blood pressure, but ACE inhibitors are particularly effective in reducing the risk of heart attacks and strokes.

2. What is the condition where a blood clot blocks an artery in the lungs, causing shortness of breath, chest pain, and other symptoms?

• A. Pulmonary embolism
• B. Pneumothorax
• C. Pleural effusion
• D. Aneurysm

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism occurs when a blood clot blocks an artery in the lungs, leading to symptoms like shortness of breath and chest pain. This condition is life-threatening and requires prompt treatment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they refer to different medical conditions: Pneumothorax is a collapsed lung, Pleural effusion is an abnormal accumulation of fluid around the lungs, and an Aneurysm is a bulge in a blood vessel.

3. What procedure is used to remove fluid from the pleural space to help a patient breathe more easily?

• A. Thoracentesis
• B. Bronchoscopy
• C. Echocardiogram
• D. CT scan

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Thoracentesis is the correct answer. It is a procedure where a needle is inserted into the pleural space to drain fluid, relieving pressure and helping the patient breathe more easily. Bronchoscopy (choice B) is a procedure used to examine the airways, not to drain fluid. An echocardiogram (choice C) is an imaging test to assess the heart's structure and function, not related to draining pleural fluid. A CT scan (choice D) is a cross-sectional imaging test that provides detailed pictures of the inside of the body, not used for draining pleural fluid.

4. The nurse is caring for a client on warfarin with an INR of 5.2. What is the most appropriate action?

• A. Administer vitamin K as an antidote.
• B. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
• C. Increase the dose of warfarin.
• D. Monitor the client’s INR closely.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 5.2 is elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. Administering vitamin K can help reverse the effects of warfarin, which is the most appropriate action in this situation. Holding the next dose of warfarin is not enough to address the high INR, and increasing the dose would further elevate the INR level. Monitoring the INR closely is important, but in this case, immediate action is needed to counteract the anticoagulant effects of warfarin.

5. The client on furosemide (Lasix) has a potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer a potassium supplement.
• B. Hold the furosemide and notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Continue the current dose of furosemide.
• D. Administer Digibind.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a potassium supplement. A potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications like cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, the priority action is to address the low potassium level by administering a potassium supplement. Holding the furosemide (Choice B) may be necessary in the long term to prevent further potassium loss, but the immediate need is to correct the low potassium level. Continuing the current dose of furosemide (Choice C) without addressing the low potassium level can worsen hypokalemia. Administering Digibind (Choice D) is not indicated for low potassium levels; Digibind is used to treat digoxin toxicity.

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