Nursing Elites

1. Which medication is used to lower high blood pressure and reduce the risk of heart attacks and strokes?

• A. ACE inhibitor
• B. Beta-blocker
• C. Diuretic
• D. Calcium channel blocker

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is an ACE inhibitor. ACE inhibitors are medications specifically designed to lower high blood pressure and reduce the risk of heart attacks, strokes, and other cardiovascular events. Beta-blockers, diuretics, and calcium channel blockers are also used to treat high blood pressure, but ACE inhibitors are particularly effective in reducing the risk of heart attacks and strokes.

2. Which term refers to the relaxation phase of the heart, during which the chambers fill with blood?

• A. Diastole
• B. Systole
• C. Refractoriness
• D. Automaticity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Diastole. Diastole is the phase of the cardiac cycle when the heart muscles relax, allowing the chambers to fill with blood. Choice B, Systole, is incorrect as systole is the contraction phase of the heart when blood is pumped out of the chambers. Choice C, Refractoriness, refers to a period during which the heart muscle is unresponsive to stimuli. Choice D, Automaticity, relates to the heart's ability to generate its own electrical impulses.

3. The client is on warfarin and has an INR of 1.5. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Increase the dose of warfarin.
• B. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
• C. Continue the current dose of warfarin.
• D. Monitor the client’s INR closely.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An INR of 1.5 is below the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, indicating that the client may be at risk of clot formation. The nurse's priority action should be to hold the next dose of warfarin to prevent further reduction of the INR. Increasing the dose could potentially lead to an increased risk of bleeding, and continuing the current dose may not be sufficient to bring the INR within the therapeutic range. Monitoring the client's INR closely is important but not the priority action in this scenario.

4. This is a more accurate indicator of tissue perfusion. It represents the cardiac output in terms of liters per minute per square meter of body surface area. Its normal range is 2.4-4 L/min.

• A. Cardiac Index
• B. Stroke volume
• C. Ejection fraction
• D. Cardiac output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cardiac Index. Cardiac Index is a measure of cardiac output relative to body surface area, providing a more accurate assessment of tissue perfusion. It is calculated by dividing the cardiac output by the body surface area. The normal range for cardiac index is 2.4-4 L/min/m². Choice B, Stroke volume, refers to the amount of blood ejected by the heart in one contraction and is not adjusted for body surface area. Choice C, Ejection fraction, is the percentage of blood pumped out of the heart's ventricles with each contraction, not adjusted for body surface area. Choice D, Cardiac output, is the total volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute, without considering body surface area.

5. Which structure serves as the major chemoreceptor of the heart?

• A. Carotid body
• B. Aortic body
• C. Vagus nerve
• D. SA node

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, the carotid body. The carotid body is the major chemoreceptor of the heart responsible for detecting changes in blood oxygen, carbon dioxide, and pH levels. This specialized structure helps regulate the cardiovascular system's response to maintain appropriate oxygen levels in the blood. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly involved in chemoreception in the heart. The aortic body is primarily involved in blood pressure regulation, the vagus nerve is a cranial nerve responsible for parasympathetic innervation, and the SA node is known as the heart's natural pacemaker.

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