Nursing Elites

1. What is a condition where the blood supply to part of the brain is interrupted or reduced, preventing brain tissue from getting oxygen and nutrients?

• A. Stroke
• B. Heart attack
• C. Pulmonary embolism
• D. Pneumonia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A stroke occurs when the blood supply to part of the brain is interrupted or reduced, leading to brain cell death and potential disability. Choice B, a heart attack, involves a blockage in the blood vessels that supply the heart muscle. Choice C, a pulmonary embolism, is a blockage in one of the pulmonary arteries in the lungs. Choice D, pneumonia, is an infection that inflames the air sacs in one or both lungs.

2. What is a device that delivers a fine spray of medication into the airways?

• A. Nebulizer
• B. Inhaler
• C. Oxygen concentrator
• D. Peak flow meter

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A nebulizer is a device that converts liquid medication into a fine mist, allowing it to be inhaled directly into the lungs. This makes it the correct answer to the question. Choice B, an inhaler, delivers medication in a different form - as a pressurized dose that needs to be inhaled. Choice C, an oxygen concentrator, is used to deliver oxygen to patients with breathing difficulties but does not deliver medication. Choice D, a peak flow meter, is used to measure how fast air can be blown out of the lungs and is not involved in delivering medication.

3. The client on furosemide is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is a significant risk associated with the use of diuretics. Choice B, Hypernatremia, is incorrect as furosemide is not known to cause high sodium levels. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is also incorrect as furosemide tends to cause potassium depletion rather than excess. Choice D, Hyponatremia, is not directly related to furosemide use.

4. What structures hold up the AV valves and are anchored to the ventricular wall by the papillary muscles?

• A. Chordae tendineae
• B. Papillary muscles
• C. Semilunar valves
• D. Aortic valve

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chordae tendineae. Chordae tendineae are fibrous cords that connect the AV valves to the papillary muscles, preventing the valves from inverting during ventricular contraction. Papillary muscles (choice B) anchor the chordae tendineae to the ventricular wall but do not hold up the AV valves directly. Semilunar valves (choice C) are located between the ventricles and the major arteries and are not involved in holding up the AV valves. The aortic valve (choice D) is one of the semilunar valves and is not responsible for holding up the AV valves.

5. The client is on warfarin and has an INR of 1.5. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Increase the dose of warfarin.
• B. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
• C. Continue the current dose of warfarin.
• D. Monitor the client’s INR closely.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An INR of 1.5 is below the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, indicating that the client may be at risk of clot formation. The nurse's priority action should be to hold the next dose of warfarin to prevent further reduction of the INR. Increasing the dose could potentially lead to an increased risk of bleeding, and continuing the current dose may not be sufficient to bring the INR within the therapeutic range. Monitoring the client's INR closely is important but not the priority action in this scenario.

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