the nurse is administering an ace inhibitor to a client with heart failure what is the expected outcome of this medication
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Cardiovascular System Exam Questions Pdf

1. When administering an ACE inhibitor to a client with heart failure, what is the expected outcome of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased cardiac output. ACE inhibitors are commonly used in heart failure to reduce the workload on the heart by decreasing blood pressure and increasing cardiac output. This ultimately helps improve the heart's efficiency and function. Choice A is incorrect because ACE inhibitors generally lead to a reduction in blood pressure. Choice B is incorrect as ACE inhibitors do not increase heart rate. Choice D is incorrect as ACE inhibitors do not typically decrease heart rate in the context of heart failure.

2. What is a condition where the walls of the arteries in the lungs become thickened and stiff, leading to increased blood pressure in the pulmonary arteries?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pulmonary hypertension is a condition characterized by the thickening and stiffening of the arteries in the lungs, resulting in elevated blood pressure in the pulmonary arteries. This condition is distinct from the other choices provided. Pulmonary fibrosis involves scarring of lung tissue, pulmonary embolism is a blockage in the pulmonary artery, and pulmonary edema is the accumulation of fluid in the lungs.

3. The client on spironolactone (Aldactone) has a potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: With a potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L, which is high, the priority action for the nurse is to hold the spironolactone. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can further increase potassium levels. Therefore, it is crucial to prevent exacerbating hyperkalemia by discontinuing the medication. Notifying the healthcare provider is necessary for further guidance and potential adjustments to the treatment plan. Administering a potassium supplement (Choice B) would be contraindicated since the client already has elevated potassium levels. Continuing the spironolactone as ordered (Choice C) can worsen hyperkalemia. Increasing the dose of spironolactone (Choice D) would be unsafe and exacerbate the high potassium levels.

4. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer heparin to a client. What lab value should be monitored?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct lab value that should be monitored when administering heparin is the aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time). Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and aPTT is a sensitive measure to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Monitoring aPTT helps in adjusting the heparin dose to maintain the desired anticoagulant effect. PT/INR is more specific to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count and hemoglobin levels are important parameters to assess bleeding tendencies and oxygen-carrying capacity but are not directly related to monitoring heparin therapy.

5. What is a severe and often sudden allergic reaction that can lead to breathing difficulties and anaphylactic shock?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Anaphylaxis is the correct answer. It is a severe allergic reaction that can result in difficulty breathing, a drop in blood pressure, and even anaphylactic shock if not treated promptly. Choice B, allergic rhinitis, is characterized by symptoms such as a runny or stuffy nose, sneezing, and itching. Choice C, bronchospasm, refers to the sudden constriction of the muscles in the walls of the bronchioles, leading to breathing difficulties. Choice D, asthma attack, involves the inflammation and narrowing of the airways, resulting in symptoms like wheezing, coughing, and chest tightness.

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