ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Exam
1. What is a condition characterized by episodes of severe, acute shortness of breath, often occurring at night?
- A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
- B. Sleep apnea
- C. Orthopnea
- D. Dyspnea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is the correct answer. It is characterized by sudden episodes of severe shortness of breath during sleep, often waking the individual. Choice B, Sleep apnea, involves pauses in breathing during sleep but does not usually present with acute shortness of breath. Choice C, Orthopnea, refers to shortness of breath that occurs when lying flat and is relieved by sitting up. Choice D, Dyspnea, is a general term for difficult or labored breathing and does not specifically describe acute episodes at night.
2. The client on clopidogrel (Plavix) should be monitored for which adverse effect?
- A. Bleeding
- B. Hypertension
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct! Clopidogrel (Plavix) is an antiplatelet medication that helps prevent blood clots. As a side effect, it can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, blood in urine or stools, or prolonged bleeding from cuts, is crucial. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as hypertension, tachycardia, and bradycardia are not typically associated with clopidogrel use.
3. During which process does coronary artery blood flow to the myocardium occur during diastole, when coronary vascular resistance is reduced?
- A. Coronary perfusion pressure
- B. Coronary vascular resistance
- C. Diastolic filling
- D. Ventricular ejection
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Coronary perfusion pressure. Coronary perfusion pressure refers to the process of coronary artery blood flow to the myocardium during diastole when coronary vascular resistance is reduced. This process ensures that the myocardium receives sufficient oxygen and nutrients for proper functioning. Choice B, Coronary vascular resistance, is the opposite of what is described in the question. During coronary perfusion, resistance is reduced to enhance blood flow. Choices C and D, Diastolic filling and Ventricular ejection, do not directly relate to the process of coronary artery blood flow during diastole.
4. What is a surgical procedure where a blood vessel is grafted to bypass a blocked coronary artery, improving blood flow to the heart muscle?
- A. Coronary artery bypass graft (CABG)
- B. Valve replacement
- C. Angioplasty
- D. Endarterectomy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Coronary artery bypass graft (CABG). CABG involves grafting a blood vessel to bypass a blocked coronary artery, enhancing blood flow to the heart muscle. This procedure helps reduce the risk of heart attack by restoring proper blood circulation to the heart. Choice B, valve replacement, is a different surgical procedure that involves replacing damaged or dysfunctional heart valves. Choice C, angioplasty, is a minimally invasive procedure that uses a balloon to open narrowed or blocked blood vessels. Choice D, endarterectomy, is the surgical removal of plaque from the lining of an artery to improve blood flow.
5. The client on furosemide is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypernatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is a significant risk associated with the use of diuretics. Choice B, Hypernatremia, is incorrect as furosemide is not known to cause high sodium levels. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is also incorrect as furosemide tends to cause potassium depletion rather than excess. Choice D, Hyponatremia, is not directly related to furosemide use.
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