Nursing Elites

1. What term describes the phenomenon wherein decreased BP causes a reflex SNS response with increased pulse, increased contractility, and vasoconstriction; and increased BP causes reflex vagal responses resulting in decreased heart rate and passive vasodilation in the systemic arterioles?

• A. Baroreflex
• B. Cheyne-Stokes breathing
• C. Frank-Starling Law
• D. Starling reflex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Baroreflex. The Baroreflex is a mechanism by which the body maintains blood pressure homeostasis through reflexive adjustments in heart rate and vascular tone. Choice B, Cheyne-Stokes breathing, is a pattern of breathing characterized by progressively deeper and sometimes faster breathing, followed by a gradual decrease that results in a temporary stop in breathing. Choices C and D, Frank-Starling Law and Starling reflex, are related to the intrinsic ability of the heart to adjust its output based on venous return, not specifically regulating blood pressure through reflex adjustments in heart rate and vascular tone as seen in the described phenomenon.

2. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client on an ACE inhibitor. What lab value is most important to monitor?

• A. Potassium
• B. Sodium
• C. Creatinine
• D. Calcium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium. When a client is on an ACE inhibitor, it is crucial to monitor potassium levels because ACE inhibitors can lead to an increase in potassium, potentially causing hyperkalemia. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice B) is not as critical in this scenario. Creatinine levels (Choice C) are important for assessing kidney function but are not the most crucial lab value to monitor with ACE inhibitors. Calcium levels (Choice D) are not directly affected by ACE inhibitors and are not the priority for monitoring in this case.

3. Which test measures the electrical activity of the heart and can detect arrhythmias and other heart conditions?

• A. Electrocardiogram (ECG or EKG)
• B. Chest X-ray
• C. MRI
• D. CT scan

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Electrocardiogram (ECG or EKG). An electrocardiogram is a test that measures the electrical activity of the heart and can detect arrhythmias and other heart conditions by recording the heart's electrical impulses. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because a chest X-ray is used to visualize the structures in the chest, an MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging) is used to provide detailed images of organs and tissues, and a CT scan (Computed Tomography) is a type of imaging that uses X-rays to create detailed cross-sectional images of the body.

4. What is the condition where the heart's mitral valve does not close properly, allowing blood to leak backward into the left atrium?

• A. Mitral regurgitation
• B. Aortic stenosis
• C. Tricuspid regurgitation
• D. Pulmonary hypertension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Mitral regurgitation is the condition where the heart's mitral valve does not close properly, allowing blood to leak backward into the left atrium. This can result in symptoms like shortness of breath and fatigue. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because aortic stenosis, tricuspid regurgitation, and pulmonary hypertension involve different heart valves or conditions, not the mitral valve specifically.

5. The client is on enoxaparin (Lovenox) for DVT prophylaxis. What is the most important lab value to monitor?

• A. Platelet count
• B. PT/INR
• C. aPTT
• D. Hemoglobin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Platelet count. When a client is on enoxaparin (Lovenox), monitoring the platelet count is crucial as enoxaparin can lead to a rare but serious side effect known as heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), causing a decrease in platelet count. Monitoring the platelet count helps detect this adverse reaction early. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because enoxaparin therapy does not directly affect PT/INR, aPTT, or hemoglobin levels.

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