ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Practice Exam
1. What term describes the phenomenon wherein decreased BP causes a reflex SNS response with increased pulse, increased contractility, and vasoconstriction; and increased BP causes reflex vagal responses resulting in decreased heart rate and passive vasodilation in the systemic arterioles?
- A. Baroreflex
- B. Cheyne-Stokes breathing
- C. Frank-Starling Law
- D. Starling reflex
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Baroreflex. The Baroreflex is a mechanism by which the body maintains blood pressure homeostasis through reflexive adjustments in heart rate and vascular tone. Choice B, Cheyne-Stokes breathing, is a pattern of breathing characterized by progressively deeper and sometimes faster breathing, followed by a gradual decrease that results in a temporary stop in breathing. Choices C and D, Frank-Starling Law and Starling reflex, are related to the intrinsic ability of the heart to adjust its output based on venous return, not specifically regulating blood pressure through reflex adjustments in heart rate and vascular tone as seen in the described phenomenon.
2. The client on furosemide is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypernatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is a significant risk associated with the use of diuretics. Choice B, Hypernatremia, is incorrect as furosemide is not known to cause high sodium levels. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is also incorrect as furosemide tends to cause potassium depletion rather than excess. Choice D, Hyponatremia, is not directly related to furosemide use.
3. What is a condition where the lung's air sacs become inflamed and fill with fluid or pus, causing cough, fever, chills, and difficulty breathing?
- A. Pneumonia
- B. Tuberculosis
- C. Asthma
- D. Bronchitis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Pneumonia is the correct answer. It is an infection that inflames the air sacs in one or both lungs, leading to the accumulation of fluid or pus, which results in symptoms such as cough, fever, chills, and difficulty breathing. Tuberculosis (choice B) is a bacterial infection affecting the lungs but does not typically cause the same acute symptoms as described. Asthma (choice C) is a chronic respiratory condition characterized by inflammation and narrowing of the airways, not specifically involving the air sacs. Bronchitis (choice D) is an inflammation of the bronchial tubes, not the air sacs in the lungs, and does not typically cause the same symptoms as pneumonia.
4. The nurse is monitoring a client on dobutamine. What adverse effect should the nurse watch for?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Respiratory distress
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tachycardia. Dobutamine is a medication that stimulates beta-1 adrenergic receptors in the heart, leading to increased heart rate. Therefore, tachycardia is a common adverse effect that the nurse should monitor for. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because dobutamine typically does not cause bradycardia, hypertension, or respiratory distress as its primary adverse effects.
5. The client is on amiodarone. What is the most important side effect to monitor for?
- A. Pulmonary toxicity
- B. Thyroid dysfunction
- C. Liver toxicity
- D. Renal dysfunction
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pulmonary toxicity. Amiodarone is known for causing serious pulmonary toxicity, which can be fatal. Monitoring for pulmonary toxicity is crucial due to its potential severity. Choice B, thyroid dysfunction, is a common side effect of amiodarone but is not as immediately life-threatening as pulmonary toxicity. Choices C and D, liver toxicity and renal dysfunction, are potential side effects of amiodarone but are not as critical or as common as pulmonary toxicity, making them less important to monitor initially.
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