ATI RN
Gastrointestinal System ATI
1. The student nurse is participating in colorectal cancer-screening program. Which patient has the fewest risk factors for colon cancer?
- A. Janice, a 45 y.o. with a 25-year history of ulcerative colitis
- B. George, a 50 y.o. whose father died of colon cancer
- C. Herman, a 60 y.o. who follows a low-fat, high-fiber diet
- D. Sissy, a 72 y.o. with a history of breast cancer
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Herman, a 60 y.o. who follows a low-fat, high-fiber diet, has the fewest risk factors for colon cancer.
2. Which of the following types of diets is implicated in the development of diverticulosis?
- A. Low-fiber diet
- B. High-fiber diet
- C. High-protein diet
- D. Low-carbohydrate diet
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A low-fiber diet is implicated in the development of diverticulosis because it leads to harder stools and increased pressure in the colon. The lack of fiber results in decreased bulk and slower transit time, predisposing individuals to constipation and the formation of diverticula. High-fiber diets, on the other hand, promote regular bowel movements and help prevent diverticular disease. High-protein and low-carbohydrate diets do not have a direct association with diverticulosis.
3. A client with ulcerative colitis has an order to begin salicylate medication to reduce inflammation. The nurse instructs the client to take the medication:
- A. 30 minutes before meals
- B. On an empty stomach
- C. After meals
- D. On arising
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: After meals. Salicylate medications for ulcerative colitis should be taken after meals to minimize gastrointestinal irritation and enhance absorption. Taking the medication on an empty stomach (Choice B) may increase the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. Taking it 30 minutes before meals (Choice A) may not provide enough protection for the stomach lining. Taking it on arising (Choice D) is not recommended as it may not coincide with the peak absorption times of the medication.
4. The client has had a new colostomy created 2 days earlier. The client is beginning to pass malodorous flatus from the stoma. The nurse interprets that
- A. This indicates inadequate preoperative bowel preparation.
- B. This is a normal, expected event.
- C. The client is experiencing early signs of ischemic bowel.
- D. The client should not have the nasogastric tube removed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: As peristalsis returns following creation of a colostomy, the client begins to pass malodorous flatus. This indicates returning bowel function and is an expected event. Within 72 hours of surgery, the client should begin passing stool via the colostomy.
5. Hepatic encephalopathy develops when the blood level of which substance increases?
- A. Ammonia
- B. Amylase
- C. Calcium
- D. Potassium
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hepatic encephalopathy develops when the blood level of ammonia increases.
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