ATI RN
ATI Gastrointestinal System Quizlet
1. Which of the following definitions best describes diverticulosis?
- A. An inflamed outpouching of the intestine
- B. A noninflamed outpouching of the intestine
- C. The partial impairment of the forward flow of intestinal contents
- D. An abnormal protrusion of an organ through the structure that usually holds it
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'A noninflamed outpouching of the intestine.' Diverticulosis refers to the presence of small, bulging pouches (diverticula) that can form in the lining of the digestive system, especially the colon. These pouches are typically noninflamed. Choice A is incorrect because it describes diverticulitis, which is the inflammation of these pouches. Choice C is incorrect as it defines bowel obstruction, not diverticulosis. Choice D is incorrect as it refers to a hernia, not diverticulosis.
2. A client is taking an antacid for treatment of a peptic ulcer. Which of the following statements best indicates that the client understands how to correctly take the antacid?
- A. I should take my antacid before I take my other medications.
- B. I need to decrease my intake of fluids so that I don’t dilute the effects of my antacid.
- C. My antacid will be most effective if I take it whenever I experience stomach pains.
- D. It is best for me to take my antacid 1 to 3 hours after meals.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: It is best for the client to take the antacid 1 to 3 hours after meals to ensure effectiveness.
3. The most important pathophysiologic factor contributing to the formation of esophageal varices is:
- A. Decreased prothrombin formation
- B. Decreased albumin formation by the liver
- C. Portal hypertension
- D. Increased central venous pressure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Portal hypertension is the most important pathophysiologic factor contributing to the formation of esophageal varices.
4. You’re caring for Beth who underwent a Billroth II procedure (surgical removal of the pylorus and duodenum) for treatment of a peptic ulcer. Which findings suggest that the patient is developing dumping syndrome, a complication associated with this procedure?
- A. Flushed, dry skin.
- B. Headache and bradycardia.
- C. Dizziness and sweating.
- D. Dyspnea and chest pain.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Dizziness and sweating are common signs of dumping syndrome, a complication of the Billroth II procedure.
5. A client is scheduled for an abdominal perineal resection with permanent colostomy. Which of the following measures would most likely be included in the plan for the client's preoperative preparation?
- A. Keep the client NPO for 2 days before surgery.
- B. Administer kanamycin (Kantrex) the night before surgery.
- C. Inform the client that chest tubes will be in place after surgery.
- D. Advise the client to limit activity.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Antibiotics are administered preoperatively to reduce the bacterial count in the colon. The client will be placed on a low residue diet to help cleanse the bowel before surgery but typically is not placed on NPO status until 8 to 12 hours before surgery. Laxatives and enemas may also be administered. Chest tubes would not be expected postoperatively. There is no need to limit the client's activity before surgery.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access