Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is NOT a part of a process recording?

• A. Non-verbal narrative account
• B. Analysis and interpretation
• C. Audio-visual recording
• D. Verbal narrative account

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A process recording typically includes a non-verbal narrative account (Choice A), an analysis and interpretation (Choice B), and a verbal narrative account (Choice D). These components help in providing a comprehensive assessment of a patient's condition and ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted for optimized outcomes. An audio-visual recording (Choice C), while it can be a part of some data collection processes, is not typically included in a process recording, making it the correct answer.

2. What is the approximate energy value of alcohol?

• A. 3 kcal/g
• B. 7 kcal/g
• C. 10 kcal/g
• D. 25 kcal/g

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 7 kcal/g. Alcohol provides approximately 7 kilocalories per gram, making it a significant source of energy or 'empty calories' in the diet that do not contain any nutrients. 'Empty calories' refer to the calorie content without the presence of essential nutrients. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. The energy values of 3 kcal/g, 10 kcal/g, and 25 kcal/g are not accurate for alcohol; instead, they may pertain to other nutrients such as carbohydrates (approximately 4 kcal/g), fats (approximately 9 kcal/g), and oils (approximately 9 kcal/g).

3. A client receiving continuous enteral tube feeding reports cramping and abdominal distention. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Check for gastric residual.
• B. Apply low intermittent suction.
• C. Increase the rate of the feeding.
• D. Request a higher-fat formula.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client on continuous enteral tube feeding experiences cramping and abdominal distention, the nurse should check for gastric residual. This assessment helps determine if the client is tolerating the feeding well or if there is a potential issue such as feeding intolerance. Applying low intermittent suction, increasing the feeding rate, or requesting a higher-fat formula are not appropriate actions for addressing the reported symptoms and may exacerbate the client's discomfort or lead to further complications.

4. When is Prevident indicated?

• A. High caries risk
• B. Crown and bridge work
• C. Orthodontic decalcification
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Prevident is indicated for all the situations listed in the choices. It is recommended for patients with a high risk of caries to reduce the risk of tooth decay. It is also used in dental procedures like crown and bridge work to strengthen enamel and prevent cavities. Furthermore, it is utilized for orthodontic decalcification to aid in remineralizing the tooth structure and prevent further damage. Therefore, the correct answer is 'All of the above.' While choices A, B, and C are individually correct, selecting 'All of the above' is the most appropriate as it encompasses all the possible indications for Prevident.

5. Symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome are most likely associated with disturbed defecation, bloating, and _____.

• A. rectal bleeding
• B. abdominal pain
• C. rectal fissures
• D. esophageal paralysis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Abdominal pain is a common symptom of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS), along with bloating and changes in bowel habits. Rectal bleeding (choice A) is more commonly associated with conditions like inflammatory bowel disease or colorectal cancer. Rectal fissures (choice C) may cause rectal bleeding but are not typically considered a core symptom of IBS. Esophageal paralysis (choice D) is unrelated to the symptoms of IBS, which primarily affect the lower gastrointestinal tract.

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