Nursing Elites

1. Characteristics of type two diabetes include all of the following except:

• A. insulin resistance
• B. blood glucose levels that rise too high
• C. blood insulin levels that rise too high
• D. rapid destruction of the pancreas

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Type 2 diabetes is characterized by insulin resistance, high blood glucose levels, and high blood insulin levels. Rapid destruction of the pancreas is not a feature of this condition. The destruction of pancreatic beta cells is more commonly associated with type 1 diabetes, not type 2 diabetes. Therefore, option D is the correct answer. Options A, B, and C are all characteristic features of type 2 diabetes, making them incorrect choices.

2. What goal should an overweight woman include in her lifestyle for a healthy pregnancy?

• A. Aim to lose 11 to 20 pounds during pregnancy
• B. Increase protein intake to 35% of total calories
• C. Delay weight loss until after pregnancy
• D. Increase daily energy intake by 550 calories

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The healthiest approach for an overweight pregnant woman is to delay weight loss until after pregnancy. During pregnancy, the body needs sufficient nutrition and energy to support the growth and development of the baby. Attempting to lose weight during pregnancy, especially significant amounts, may compromise the health of both the mother and the baby. Increasing protein intake to 35% of total calories or energy intake by 550 calories per day without professional guidance may lead to an unbalanced diet, which is not optimal for pregnancy. The focus should be on maintaining a balanced, nutrient-rich diet and appropriate weight gain during pregnancy.

3. What food would most likely be included in Level 1 of the National Dysphagia Diet?

• A. peanut butter
• B. oatmeal
• C. fruit preserves
• D. plain yogurt

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, plain yogurt. Level 1 of the National Dysphagia Diet includes pureed or smooth foods that are easy to swallow. Plain yogurt fits this criteria as it is smooth and can be easily consumed without posing a risk of choking. Choices A, B, and C are not typically included in Level 1 of the diet. Peanut butter, oatmeal, and fruit preserves are not usually suitable for individuals on Level 1 of the National Dysphagia Diet as they may present a choking hazard or are not in a pureed or smooth form.

4. During the Emergent phase of a burn, the most fatal electrolyte imbalance in a burned client is:

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypernatremia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the Emergent phase of burns, the most fatal electrolyte imbalance is Hypokalemia. This is due to the shift of potassium from the intracellular space to the extracellular space, leading to low potassium levels in the blood. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Hyperkalemia, Hypernatremia, and Hyponatremia are not typically associated with the Emergent phase of burns and do not pose the same level of risk as Hypokalemia in this context.

5. Which foods are the biggest contributors of saturated fats consumed by Americans?

• A. Butter, coconut, and palm oils
• B. Corn oil
• C. Meat and milk
• D. Cheese, pizza, desserts, and chicken

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Cheese, pizza, desserts, and chicken. These foods are significant contributors to the intake of saturated fats in the American diet, often found in processed and fast foods. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while butter, coconut, and palm oils (A) are sources of saturated fats, they are not the biggest contributors in the American diet. Corn oil (B) is a source of unsaturated fats, and meat and milk (C) contain saturated fats but are not the primary contributors compared to cheese, pizza, desserts, and chicken.

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