the process by which registered nurses assess and judge the performance of peers against some predetermined standard is called the process by which registered nurses assess and judge the performance of peers against some predetermined standard is called
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ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet

1. The process by which registered nurses assess and judge the performance of peers against some predetermined standard is called:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Peer review. Peer review is a process in which professional peers assess and judge the performance of their colleagues against predetermined standards. Essay evaluations involve describing an employee's performance through a detailed written narrative. Forced distribution evaluation is a method where employees are rated based on a fixed distribution, similar to grading on a curve. Group evaluation, on the other hand, involves managers comparing individual and group performance against organizational standards.

2. A patient with a history of breast cancer is being prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). What is a critical point the nurse should include in the patient education?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tamoxifen increases the risk of venous thromboembolism, so patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots. Choice B is incorrect because tamoxifen does not decrease the risk of osteoporosis. Choice C is incorrect as tamoxifen may cause hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms but this is not the critical point for patient education. Choice D is incorrect as tamoxifen may cause weight gain and fluid retention, but it is not the critical point that the nurse should focus on in patient education.

3. A client is receiving intermittent tube feedings and is at risk for aspiration. What should the nurse identify as a risk factor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Gastroesophageal reflux disease increases the risk of aspiration due to the potential for regurgitation of stomach contents into the esophagus and airways. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to an increased risk of aspiration. A residual of 65mL 1 hour postprandial may indicate delayed gastric emptying but is not a direct risk factor for aspiration. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula or receiving a feeding in a supine position are not specific risk factors for aspiration unless they contribute to reflux or other related issues.

4. Which of the following is a type of heart attack that occurs when the blood supply to part of the heart muscle is severely reduced or stopped?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Myocardial infarction. Myocardial infarction, commonly known as a heart attack, occurs when the blood supply to part of the heart muscle is severely reduced or stopped, leading to tissue damage or death. Angina (choice B) is chest pain or discomfort that occurs when the heart muscle doesn't get enough oxygen-rich blood. Stroke (choice C) is a condition where the blood supply to the brain is interrupted or reduced. Congestive heart failure (choice D) is a chronic condition where the heart muscle doesn't pump blood as well as it should.

5. Which finding is not typically associated with inflammation in a client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Polyuria is excessive urination and is not a typical assessment finding in inflammation. Inflammation commonly presents with pain (A), heat (B), and erythema (D) which are classic signs of an inflammatory response. Pain results from the release of inflammatory mediators, heat is due to increased blood flow, and erythema is caused by vasodilation and increased blood flow to the area. Polyuria is more likely associated with conditions such as diabetes or renal issues, rather than inflammation.

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