the primary reason to conduct a performance appraisal is the primary reason to conduct a performance appraisal is
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Leadership Practice A

1. What is the primary reason for conducting a performance appraisal?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary reason for conducting a performance appraisal is to provide constructive feedback to employees. This feedback helps employees understand what is expected of them, how well they are performing, and areas where they can improve. Choice B (Imposing punishment) is incorrect because performance appraisals should focus on development rather than punishment. Choice C (Identifying issues) is not the primary reason but can be a secondary outcome of performance appraisals. Choice D (Offering coaching) is related to providing guidance and support, which is a part of the feedback process but not the primary reason for conducting a performance appraisal.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of a new prescription of prednisone to a client who has COPD. The healthcare professional should not concentrate on which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering prednisone, a corticosteroid medication, to a client with COPD, the healthcare professional should be aware of potential adverse effects. Tachycardia is not a common adverse effect of prednisone use. The correct adverse effects to monitor for include hypokalemia, fluid retention, and gastrointestinal issues like black, tarry stools due to potential gastrointestinal bleeding. Therefore, the healthcare professional should not concentrate on tachycardia but should focus on the other listed adverse effects when administering prednisone to a client with COPD.

3. You are caring for a patient admitted with a diagnosis of acute kidney injury. When you review your patient's most recent laboratory reports, you note that the patient's magnesium levels are high. You should prioritize assessment for which of the following health problems?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: To assess a patient's magnesium status, the nurse should check deep tendon reflexes. Diminished deep tendon reflexes may indicate high serum magnesium levels, as hypermagnesemia can lead to neuromuscular effects. Tachycardia, cool clammy skin, and acute flank pain are not typically associated with high magnesium levels and are not priority assessments in this situation.

4. A nurse is teaching a patient about the use of raloxifene (Evista) for the prevention of osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Raloxifene, a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This action helps in preventing osteoporosis by maintaining bone strength. Choice A is incorrect as raloxifene does not affect the absorption of calcium from the intestines. Choice C is incorrect as raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys. Choice D is incorrect as raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone; instead, it primarily works by reducing bone loss.

5. Loss of smell results in a condition that limits the capacity to detect the flavor of food and beverages, called:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: anosmia. Anosmia refers to the loss of smell, which significantly affects the ability to detect flavors. Hypergeusia and dysgeusia, choices A and B, refer to heightened or distorted taste, respectively. 'Phantom taste' in choice D is not the correct term for the condition described in the question.

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