ATI RN
ATI Gastrointestinal System
1. The nurse is reviewing the record of a client with Crohn’s disease. Which of the following stool characteristics would the nurse expect to note documented in the client’s record?
- A. Chronic constipation
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Constipation alternating with diarrhea
- D. Stool constantly oozing from the rectum
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Crohn’s disease is characterized by nonbloody diarrhea of usually not more than four to five stools daily. Over time, the diarrhea episodes increase in frequency, duration, and severity. Chronic constipation (Choice A), constipation alternating with diarrhea (Choice C), and stool constantly oozing from the rectum (Choice D) are not characteristics typically associated with Crohn’s disease.
2. A patient is receiving finasteride (Proscar) for the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia. Which of the following is an expected outcome of the medication?
- A. Decrease in the size of the prostate gland.
- B. Improved urinary flow and decreased symptoms of urinary retention.
- C. Increased production of prostate-specific antigen (PSA).
- D. Reduction in the number of nocturnal awakenings.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Finasteride (Proscar) is used in the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia to improve urinary flow and decrease symptoms of urinary retention by reducing the size of the prostate gland. Choice A is incorrect because although finasteride may reduce the size of the prostate gland, the expected outcome relevant to the patient's symptoms is improved urinary flow rather than a specific change in gland size. Choice C is incorrect because finasteride actually decreases the production of prostate-specific antigen (PSA) due to its mechanism of action. Choice D is incorrect because although improved urinary flow may lead to a reduction in nocturnal awakenings, the main expected outcome of finasteride treatment is related to urinary symptoms.
3. Your patient with peritonitis is NPO and complaining of thirst. What is your priority?
- A. Increase the I.V. infusion rate.
- B. Use diversion activities.
- C. Provide frequent mouth care.
- D. Give ice chips every 15 minutes.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Providing frequent mouth care is the priority for a patient with peritonitis who is NPO and complaining of thirst.
4. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory value should be monitored by the nurse to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. PT
- B. aPTT
- C. INR
- D. Platelet count
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is specifically used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. It should be maintained at 1.5 to 2 times the normal level. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the therapeutic range of heparin is achieved to prevent clot formation while minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. Choice A (PT) is incorrect as it is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Choice C (INR) is also incorrect as it is primarily used to monitor warfarin therapy. Choice D (Platelet count) is not directly related to monitoring the effectiveness of heparin therapy.
5. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Apples.
- B. White bread.
- C. Bananas.
- D. Grapes.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Bananas are high in potassium, which should be avoided by clients with chronic kidney disease to prevent hyperkalemia. Apples, white bread, and grapes do not have high potassium levels and are generally acceptable for clients with chronic kidney disease unless they have other specific dietary restrictions.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI Basic
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $69.99
ATI Basic
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 90 days access @ $149.99