Nursing Elites

1. A client has been diagnosed with adenocarcinoma of the stomach and is scheduled to undergo a subtotal gastrectomy (Billroth II procedure). During pre-operative teaching, the nurse is reinforcing information about the procedure. Which of the following explanations is most accurate?

• A. The procedure will result in enlargement of the pyloric sphincter
• B. The procedure will result in anastomosis of the gastric stump to the jejunum
• C. The procedure will result in removal of the duodenum
• D. The procedure will result in repositioning of the vagus nerve

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Billroth II procedure involves anastomosis of the gastric stump to the jejunum.

2. A nurse is reviewing the results of serum laboratory studies drawn on a client who is suspected of having hepatitis. The nurse interprets that an elevation in which of the following studies is the most specific indicator of the disease?

• A. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
• B. Serum bilirubin
• C. Hemoglobin
• D. Blood urea nitrogen

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Laboratory indicators of hepatitis include elevated liver enzymes, serum bilirubin level, and erythrocyte sedimentation rate is nonspecific test that indicates the presence of inflammation somewhere in the body. Elevated blood urea nitrogen may indicate renal dysfunction. A hemoglobin level is unrelated to this diagnosis.

3. A client with liver dysfunction has low serum levels of thrombin. The nurse provides care, anticipating that this client is most at risk of

• A. Dehydration
• B. Malnutrition
• C. Bleeding
• D. Infection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Thrombin is produced by the liver and is necessary for normal clotting. When a client with liver dysfunction has low serum levels of thrombin, they are at risk of bleeding due to impaired clotting mechanisms. Dehydration (choice A) is not directly related to low thrombin levels. Malnutrition (choice B) may impact overall health but is not the most immediate concern associated with low thrombin levels. Infection (choice D) is not directly related to the clotting function affected by low thrombin levels.

4. The client has orders for a nasogastric (NG) tube insertion. During the procedure, instructions that will assist in the insertion would be:

• A. Instruct the client to tilt his head back for insertion in the nostril, then flex his neck for the final insertion
• B. After insertion into the nostril, instruct the client to extend his neck
• C. Introduce the tube with the client’s head tilted back, then instruct him to keep his head upright for final insertion
• D. Instruct the client to hold his chin down, then back for insertion of the tube

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Instructing the client to tilt his head back for insertion in the nostril, then flex his neck for the final insertion helps facilitate the NG tube insertion.

5. A 30-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with complaints of severe abdominal cramping and diarrhea. The nurse evaluates the effectiveness of the patient's intravenous therapy. Which of the following laboratory tests BEST reflects hydration status?

• A. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate.
• B. White blood cell count.
• C. Hematocrit.
• D. Serum glucose.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hematocrit is the best indicator of hydration status because it reflects the proportion of red blood cells in the blood. An increased hematocrit indicates dehydration, as the blood becomes more concentrated due to fluid loss. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (Choice A) is a nonspecific marker of inflammation, not hydration status. White blood cell count (Choice B) is an indicator of infection or inflammation. Serum glucose (Choice D) is used to monitor blood sugar levels, not hydration status.

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