ATI RN
ATI Pediatrics Proctored Exam 2023
1. A patient is prescribed fluconazole (Diflucan) for a vaginal yeast infection. The nurse should be concerned if the patient is also taking which medication?
- A. Losartan (Cozaar)
- B. Simvastatin (Zocor)
- C. Lisinopril (Zestril)
- D. Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When fluconazole is taken with statins like simvastatin, it can increase the levels of the statin in the blood, potentially leading to adverse effects such as muscle pain and weakness. Therefore, the nurse should be concerned if the patient is taking simvastatin along with fluconazole.
2. A patient taking sildenafil (Viagra) asks a nurse what action to take if priapism occurs. Which response should the nurse provide?
- A. Take an additional half-strength dose of sildenafil
- B. The condition usually resolves in 12 hours or less
- C. Wait until the following day and notify the doctor
- D. Seek emergency help, because permanent damage can occur
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Patients experiencing priapism from sildenafil should seek immediate medical attention. Priapism is a serious condition where an erection lasts longer than 4 hours, and if left untreated, it can lead to irreversible damage to the penile tissue, potentially causing permanent erectile dysfunction. Therefore, prompt intervention is crucial to prevent long-term complications.
3. Which statement is not part of the developmental care approach?
- A. Family-centered care
- B. Care on a sliding payment scale
- C. Healing environment
- D. Protected sleep
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The developmental care approach emphasizes creating an environment that supports the infant's developmental needs, including family-centered care, a healing environment, and promoting protected sleep. Payment scale considerations are not a component of developmental care.
4. A healthcare provider is assessing an infant who has hydrocephalus and is 6 hours postoperative following placement of a ventriculoperitoneal shunt. Which of the following findings should the provider report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Decreased urine output
- B. Temperature of 37.5 degrees C (99.5 degrees F)
- C. Heart rate 130/min
- D. Leakage of cerebrospinal fluid
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The provider should report the leakage of cerebrospinal fluid to the healthcare provider as it may indicate shunt malfunction or infection, requiring immediate attention to prevent complications. Decreased urine output, a temperature of 37.5 degrees C, and a heart rate of 130/min are common postoperative findings and may not be directly related to shunt function. While these findings should still be monitored, they do not require immediate reporting like cerebrospinal fluid leakage.
5. When educating a patient about sildenafil (Viagra), which adverse effect should be a priority for the patient to report to his prescriber?
- A. Flushing
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Hearing loss
- D. Dyspepsia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Hearing loss.' In rare cases, Viagra has been associated with sudden hearing loss, typically in one ear, which can be partial or complete. Any onset of hearing problems while using Viagra should be reported promptly to the prescriber. It is recommended to discontinue the medication if it is used for erectile dysfunction. 'Flushing,' 'Diarrhea,' and 'Dyspepsia' are known adverse effects of Viagra but are generally less serious compared to hearing loss.
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