Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is planning care for a patient receiving morphine sulfate via a patient-controlled analgesia pump. Which intervention may be required due to a potential adverse effect of this drug?

• A. Administering a cough suppressant
• B. Inserting a Foley catheter
• C. Administering an anti-diarrheal
• D. Monitoring urinary output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Morphine can lead to urinary retention and urinary hesitancy. If a patient shows signs of bladder distention or inability to void, the healthcare provider should be notified, and urinary catheterization may be necessary. Administering a cough suppressant or an anti-diarrheal is not typically required to address adverse effects of morphine. Liver function tests (LFTs) are not directly related to the potential adverse effects of morphine on the urinary system.

2. A 4-year-old child is admitted to the hospital secondary to dehydration. Laboratory tests indicate a high hemoglobin and hematocrit, and the serum sodium is below normal levels. Which condition does the nurse suspect based on the current data?

• A. Hypernatremia
• B. Metabolic acidosis
• C. Hypotonic dehydration
• D. Isotonic dehydration

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is hypotonic dehydration. The combination of high hemoglobin and hematocrit with low serum sodium indicates hypotonic dehydration. In this condition, there is an excess of solutes relative to water, leading to higher red blood cell concentration (elevated hemoglobin and hematocrit) and low serum sodium levels.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a child who has nephrotic syndrome. Which of the following findings should the professional expect?

• A. Hypoalbuminemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Polyuria
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In nephrotic syndrome, there is excessive loss of protein in the urine, leading to hypoalbuminemia. This results in decreased oncotic pressure, causing fluid to shift into the interstitial spaces, leading to edema. Hyperkalemia, polyuria, and hyperglycemia are not typically associated with nephrotic syndrome.

4. Which of the following is a key feature of the diagnosis of ASD according to the DSM V?

• A. Unusual responses to sensory input
• B. Social isolation
• C. Repetitive behaviors
• D. Delayed motor development

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the DSM V, one of the key diagnostic criteria for Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) is unusual responses to sensory input. These atypical responses can include hypersensitivity or hyposensitivity to sensory stimuli, such as sound, touch, taste, or smell. These sensory processing differences are important in the diagnosis of ASD because they can significantly impact an individual's daily functioning and behavior. Social isolation and repetitive behaviors are associated features of ASD but are not the key diagnostic criteria according to the DSM V. Delayed motor development may be observed in some individuals with ASD, but it is not a key feature used for diagnosis in the DSM V.

5. The patient taking spironolactone (Aldactone) makes a statement indicating effective teaching. Which statement shows understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will use salt substitutes to lower my sodium intake
• B. I will increase my intake of foods that are high in potassium
• C. I will call my doctor if I begin having menstrual irregularities
• D. I will take this medication at bedtime each evening

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can cause endocrine effects like menstrual irregularities. Therefore, the patient recognizing the need to report such changes indicates effective teaching. Choices A and B are incorrect as salt substitutes and high-potassium foods should be avoided with spironolactone. Choice D is also incorrect because diuretics, including spironolactone, are ideally taken in the morning to prevent disturbances in sleep due to nocturia.

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