Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is planning care for a patient receiving morphine sulfate via a patient-controlled analgesia pump. Which intervention may be required due to a potential adverse effect of this drug?

• A. Administering a cough suppressant
• B. Inserting a Foley catheter
• C. Administering an anti-diarrheal
• D. Monitoring urinary output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Morphine can lead to urinary retention and urinary hesitancy. If a patient shows signs of bladder distention or inability to void, the healthcare provider should be notified, and urinary catheterization may be necessary. Administering a cough suppressant or an anti-diarrheal is not typically required to address adverse effects of morphine. Liver function tests (LFTs) are not directly related to the potential adverse effects of morphine on the urinary system.

2. Which urinary diversion procedure is the least damaging to the body image of the adolescent?

• A. Urostomy
• B. Ileal conduit
• C. Nephrostomy
• D. Suprapubic placement

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ileal conduit. The ileal conduit diverts urine to the colon, and the urine is excreted with the feces. Unlike urostomy, nephrostomy, and suprapubic placement, the ileal conduit does not require an external appliance, which can be less damaging to an adolescent's body image.

3. A healthcare provider at an urgent care clinic is assessing an adolescent client who has an upper respiratory tract infection. Which of the following findings should the provider recognize as a manifestation of pertussis?

• A. Inflamed throat with exudate
• B. Purulent eye drainage
• C. Dry, hacking cough
• D. Koplik spots on buccal mucosa

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Dry, hacking cough.' A dry, hacking cough is a classic manifestation of pertussis. Pertussis typically presents with symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection, starting with a persistent, severe, and uncontrollable cough that can worsen at night. This cough is often followed by a high-pitched 'whoop' sound as the patient tries to catch their breath, hence the term 'whooping cough.' In contrast, options A, B, and D are not typically associated with pertussis. Inflamed throat with exudate may suggest a bacterial throat infection like streptococcal pharyngitis, purulent eye drainage is more indicative of a bacterial conjunctivitis, and Koplik spots on the buccal mucosa are specific to measles. Therefore, recognizing the dry, hacking cough as a manifestation of pertussis is crucial for early identification and appropriate management of the disease.

4. When educating a patient about sildenafil (Viagra), which adverse effect should be a priority for the patient to report to his prescriber?

• A. Flushing
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Hearing loss
• D. Dyspepsia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Hearing loss.' In rare cases, Viagra has been associated with sudden hearing loss, typically in one ear, which can be partial or complete. Any onset of hearing problems while using Viagra should be reported promptly to the prescriber. It is recommended to discontinue the medication if it is used for erectile dysfunction. 'Flushing,' 'Diarrhea,' and 'Dyspepsia' are known adverse effects of Viagra but are generally less serious compared to hearing loss.

5. Which level nursery classifications are housed in institutions that can provide on-site surgical repair of serious congenital or acquired malformations?

• A. Level III
• B. Level I
• C. Level IV
• D. Level II

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Level IV. Level IV nurseries are equipped to provide the highest level of care, including complex surgical interventions for serious congenital or acquired malformations. These nurseries have the necessary resources and expertise to manage critical cases effectively. Choice A: Level III nurseries provide advanced care for moderately ill newborns but may not have the capacity for on-site surgical repair of serious malformations. Choice B: Level I nurseries offer basic care for healthy newborns and those with minor issues, lacking the resources for surgical interventions. Choice D: Level II nurseries can manage moderately ill newborns but may not have the capability for complex surgical interventions like Level IV nurseries.

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