Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is planning care for a patient receiving morphine sulfate via a patient-controlled analgesia pump. Which intervention may be required due to a potential adverse effect of this drug?

• A. Administering a cough suppressant
• B. Inserting a Foley catheter
• C. Administering an anti-diarrheal
• D. Monitoring urinary output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Morphine can lead to urinary retention and urinary hesitancy. If a patient shows signs of bladder distention or inability to void, the healthcare provider should be notified, and urinary catheterization may be necessary. Administering a cough suppressant or an anti-diarrheal is not typically required to address adverse effects of morphine. Liver function tests (LFTs) are not directly related to the potential adverse effects of morphine on the urinary system.

2. A nurse is planning care for a 2-month-old infant who is postoperative following surgical repair of a cleft lip. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Position the infant on his abdomen
• B. Cleanse the incision site with hydrogen peroxide
• C. Offer the infant a pacifier
• D. Keep the infant's elbow restrained

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should keep the infant�s elbow restrained to prevent injury to the surgical site.

3. A patient taking sildenafil (Viagra) asks a nurse what action to take if priapism occurs. Which response should the nurse provide?

• A. Take an additional half-strength dose of sildenafil
• B. The condition usually resolves in 12 hours or less
• C. Wait until the following day and notify the doctor
• D. Seek emergency help, because permanent damage can occur

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Patients experiencing priapism from sildenafil should seek immediate medical attention. Priapism is a serious condition where an erection lasts longer than 4 hours, and if left untreated, it can lead to irreversible damage to the penile tissue, potentially causing permanent erectile dysfunction. Therefore, prompt intervention is crucial to prevent long-term complications.

4. What is the corrected age of a child born at 30 weeks gestation on May 2, 2014, who is being tested on August 5, 2014?

• A. 3 months
• B. 2 weeks
• C. 2.6 months
• D. 4 weeks

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the corrected age of a premature child, you need to adjust for the weeks of prematurity. In this case, the child was born at 30 weeks gestation. From May 2, 2014, to August 5, 2014, is a span of 14 weeks. Subtracting the 30 weeks of gestation from the total time passed (14 weeks) gives the corrected age, which is 14 - 30 = -16 weeks. Since negative weeks are not relevant here, the corrected age is 0 weeks, which is equivalent to 2 weeks. Choice A is incorrect because 3 months is not the correct adjustment for the given scenario. Choice C is incorrect as it provides a fractional value for age, which is not practical in this context. Choice D is incorrect as 4 weeks does not account for the weeks of prematurity.

5. An 80-year-old patient with a history of renal insufficiency was recently started on cimetidine. Which assessment finding indicates that the patient may be experiencing an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Pain with urination
• B. New onset disorientation to time and place
• C. HR changes from a baseline of 70-80bpm to 110-120bpm
• D. #ERROR!

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: New onset disorientation to time and place. Cimetidine can cause adverse effects on the CNS system, especially in elderly patients with renal or hepatic impairment. This may manifest as confusion, hallucinations, lethargy, restlessness, or seizures. Pain with urination (choice A) is not typically associated with cimetidine use, and HR changes (choice C) are more likely related to other factors. Choice D is not a valid option.

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