ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Exam Questions
1. When monitoring a client on dobutamine, what is the most important parameter to assess?
- A. Blood pressure
- B. Heart rate
- C. Oxygen saturation
- D. Respiratory rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood pressure. When a client is on dobutamine, it is crucial to closely monitor their blood pressure as dobutamine can cause significant changes in blood pressure. While heart rate is also important to monitor during this time, blood pressure is the most critical parameter to assess. Oxygen saturation and respiratory rate are also important parameters to monitor in a patient receiving dobutamine, but they are not as crucial as blood pressure in this scenario.
2. The client on furosemide is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypernatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is a significant risk associated with the use of diuretics. Choice B, Hypernatremia, is incorrect as furosemide is not known to cause high sodium levels. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is also incorrect as furosemide tends to cause potassium depletion rather than excess. Choice D, Hyponatremia, is not directly related to furosemide use.
3. The client on spironolactone (Aldactone) has a potassium level of 5.6 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Hold the spironolactone and notify the healthcare provider.
- B. Administer potassium supplements.
- C. Continue the spironolactone as ordered.
- D. Increase the dose of spironolactone.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hold the spironolactone and notify the healthcare provider. A potassium level of 5.6 mEq/L is high, indicating hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can further elevate potassium levels. Therefore, the priority action is to withhold the medication to prevent exacerbating hyperkalemia and notify the healthcare provider for further management. Option B is incorrect because administering potassium supplements would worsen the hyperkalemia. Option C is incorrect as continuing spironolactone can lead to a further increase in potassium levels. Option D is incorrect as increasing the dose of spironolactone would be inappropriate in the presence of elevated potassium levels.
4. The client is on a nitrate for angina. What is the most common side effect the nurse should monitor for?
- A. Headache
- B. Flushing
- C. Dizziness
- D. Nausea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Headache. Nitrates commonly cause headaches as a side effect due to vasodilation. Flushing, dizziness, and nausea are less common side effects associated with nitrates. Flushing is more related to the dilation of blood vessels closer to the skin's surface, dizziness could occur but is not as common as headaches, and nausea is a less typical side effect of nitrates.
5. What is a type of heart disease that involves the thickening or stiffening of the heart muscle, reducing its ability to pump blood?
- A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
- B. Dilated cardiomyopathy
- C. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
- D. Arrhythmia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is a type of heart disease characterized by the thickening or stiffening of the heart muscle, leading to a reduced ability to pump blood. This condition is different from dilated cardiomyopathy (choice B), which involves the enlargement and weakening of the heart chambers. Restrictive cardiomyopathy (choice C) is characterized by the stiffening of the heart muscle, affecting its ability to fill with blood properly. Arrhythmia (choice D) refers to abnormal heart rhythms and is not specifically related to thickening or stiffening of the heart muscle, as seen in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
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