Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of guided imagery for pain management in a patient with second- and third-degree burns requiring extensive dressing changes. Which finding best indicates the effectiveness of guided imagery?

• A. The patient's need for analgesic medication decreases during the dressing changes.
• B. The patient rates pain during the dressing change as a 6 on a scale of 0 to 10.
• C. The patient asks for pain medication during the dressing changes only once throughout the procedure.
• D. The patient's facial expressions remain stoic during the procedure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A reduction in the need for analgesic medication indicates that guided imagery is effective in managing the patient's pain. Choices B, C, and D do not directly measure the effectiveness of guided imagery. A patient rating pain as 6 on a scale of 0 to 10, asking for pain medication once, or having stoic facial expressions may not necessarily reflect the impact of guided imagery on pain management.

2. A client has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should take this medication with food
• B. I should report a cough to my provider
• C. I should expect to have facial swelling when taking this medication
• D. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Reporting a cough is crucial when taking lisinopril as it can be a sign of a serious side effect, such as angioedema or cough associated with ACE inhibitors. Option A is incorrect because lisinopril can be taken with or without food. Option C is incorrect as facial swelling is not an expected side effect of lisinopril. Option D is incorrect because lisinopril can cause hyperkalemia, so increasing potassium-rich foods without healthcare provider guidance can be dangerous.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client via a nasogastric (NG) tube. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Crush all medications and administer them all at once.
• B. Flush the NG tube before and after each medication.
• C. Administer only liquid forms of medications.
• D. Skip flushing the tube entirely.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Flush the NG tube before and after each medication.' Flushing the NG tube is essential to ensure that the medication passes through smoothly without any obstruction. It helps prevent clogging of the tube and ensures that the full dose of the medication reaches the patient. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because crushing all medications at once, administering only liquid forms of medications, and skipping tube flushing entirely can lead to complications such as tube blockages, incomplete medication administration, and potential harm to the client.

4. Which nursing action will best promote patient safety when administering medications?

• A. Check the patient's wristband before administering medications.
• B. Confirm the patient's allergies prior to administration.
• C. Document the medications immediately after administration.
• D. Prepare medications at the medication cart to minimize distractions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Confirming the patient's allergies before administering medications is crucial for patient safety as it helps prevent adverse reactions. Checking the patient's wristband is important for identification but may not directly impact medication safety. Documenting medications after administration is necessary but does not primarily promote safety during administration. Preparing medications at the medication cart, rather than the nurse's station, is preferred to ensure accuracy and proper medication handling, but it is not directly related to confirming allergies for safety.

5. A nurse manager is presenting to a group of unit nurses the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act. Which of the following medications should the nurse include under Schedule II?

• A. Buprenorphine hydrochloride
• B. Hydrocodone bitartrate
• C. Diazepam
• D. Morphine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hydrocodone bitartrate. According to the Controlled Substances Act, hydrocodone bitartrate is classified as a Schedule II controlled substance due to its high potential for abuse and addiction. Diazepam (Choice C) and morphine (Choice D) are classified as Schedule IV and Schedule II controlled substances, respectively. Buprenorphine hydrochloride (Choice A) is classified as a Schedule III controlled substance. Therefore, hydrocodone bitartrate should be included under Schedule II medications when discussing the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act.

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