Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a child with acute postinfectious glomerulonephritis. Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology of acute postinfectious glomerulonephritis?

• A. Occurs after a urinary tract infection
• B. Occurs after a streptococcal infection
• C. Associated with renal vascular disorders
• D. Is caused by E. coli

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Occurs after a streptococcal infection.' Acute postinfectious glomerulonephritis often occurs after an infection with certain strains of streptococcus bacteria, specifically group A streptococcus. The body’s immune response to the infection leads to inflammation and damage in the kidneys. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because acute postinfectious glomerulonephritis is primarily associated with streptococcal infections, not urinary tract infections, renal vascular disorders, or E. coli.

2. The parent asks when the soft area in the infant's head will go away. What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. The area is called the anterior fontanel (fontanelle) and typically closes anytime up to 18 months of age.
• B. The area is called a fontanel (fontanelle). They remain open to allow for rapid brain growth in the first months of life.
• C. The soft spots may stay open until your infant is 2 or 3 years old.
• D. Soft spots on the infant's head should have closed by now.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best response by the nurse is A, as the anterior fontanel typically closes between 12-18 months of age, allowing for brain growth during infancy. Choice B is incorrect because it does not provide a specific timeframe for the closure of the fontanel. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests a later closure timeframe than usual. Choice D is incorrect as it states that the soft spots should have closed already, which is inaccurate for a 6-month-old infant.

3. What time frame has the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP) of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists recommended that pregnant adolescents and women who are not protected against pertussis receive the tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis (Tdap) vaccine?

• A. Between 27 and 36 weeks of gestation or postpartum before discharge from the hospital
• B. During the first prenatal visit when pregnancy is confirmed
• C. The vaccine should be administered 24 hours prior to delivery
• D. This vaccine is only recommended during the first trimester

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP) of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists recommend that pregnant adolescents and women without protection against pertussis should receive the Tdap vaccine ideally between 27 and 36 weeks of gestation or postpartum before discharge from the hospital. This timeframe allows for the development of antibodies in the mother to protect her and provide passive immunity to the infant. Administering the vaccine during the first trimester (Choice D) is not recommended as the optimal time is between 27 and 36 weeks. Choice B, during the first prenatal visit, is too early for optimal protection, and Choice C, 24 hours prior to delivery, does not provide enough time for the vaccine to be effective before birth.

4. What clinical manifestation(s) is associated with calcium depletion (hypocalcemia)?

• A. Nausea, vomiting
• B. Weakness, fatigue
• C. Muscle hypotonicity
• D. Neuromuscular irritability

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hypocalcemia can lead to neuromuscular irritability, causing symptoms such as muscle cramps, tetany, or seizures. Other symptoms like nausea, vomiting, and weakness are less specific and can be related to various conditions.

5. During a funduscopic examination of a school-age child, the nurse notes a brilliant, uniform red reflex in both eyes. The nurse should recognize that this is which?

• A. A normal finding
• B. A sign of a possible visual defect and a need for vision screening
• C. An abnormal finding requiring referral to an ophthalmologist
• D. A sign of small hemorrhages, which usually resolve spontaneously

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A brilliant, uniform red reflex in both eyes is a normal finding, indicating that the retina is healthy and there are no significant obstructions in the visual pathway.

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