ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 1
1. The nurse is preparing a teaching care plan for the client diagnosed with nephritic syndrome. Which intervention should the nurse include?
- A. Discontinue the use of steroid therapy immediately if symptoms develop.
- B. Take diuretics as needed to treat the dependent edema in ankles.
- C. Increase the intake of dietary sodium every day to decrease fluid retention.
- D. Report any decrease in daily weight during treatment to the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Reporting a decrease in daily weight is crucial when managing nephritic syndrome as it can indicate worsening of the condition or dehydration. It is essential to monitor weight changes closely to assess the effectiveness of treatment and the client's fluid status. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing steroid therapy abruptly can lead to complications; gradual tapering is usually recommended. Choice B is incorrect as diuretics should be taken as prescribed by the healthcare provider to manage fluid retention. Choice C is also incorrect because increasing dietary sodium can exacerbate fluid retention, which is counterproductive in nephritic syndrome.
2. The client with chronic alcoholism has chronic pancreatitis and hypomagnesemia. What should the nurse assess when administering magnesium sulfate to the client?
- A. Deep tendon reflexes
- B. Arterial blood gases
- C. Skin turgor
- D. Capillary refill time
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When administering magnesium sulfate to a client with chronic alcoholism, chronic pancreatitis, and hypomagnesemia, the nurse should assess deep tendon reflexes. Magnesium sulfate can depress the central nervous system and decrease deep tendon reflexes, so monitoring them is crucial. Assessing arterial blood gases, skin turgor, or capillary refill time is not directly related to the administration of magnesium sulfate in this scenario.
3. The client has failed to conceive after many attempts over a three-year time period and asks the nurse, “I have tried everything. What should I do now?” Which statement is the nurse’s best response?
- A. Assess the intravenous fluids for rate and volume
- B. Change the surgical dressing every day at the same time
- C. Monitor the client’s medication levels daily
- D. Monitor the percentage of each meal eaten
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is to assess the intravenous fluids for rate and volume. In this situation, the client is seeking guidance on fertility issues, not related to intravenous fluids, surgical dressing changes, medication levels, or meal monitoring. The nurse should provide supportive and empathetic guidance, suggesting further options like consulting fertility specialists or exploring additional treatments.
4. Which of the following is inappropriate in collecting midstream clean-catch urine specimen for urine analysis?
- A. Collect early in the morning, first voided specimen
- B. Do perineal care before specimen collection
- C. Collect 5 to 10 ml of urine
- D. Discard the first flow of urine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The inappropriate action in collecting a midstream clean-catch urine specimen for urine analysis is to collect only 5 to 10 ml of urine. Adequate urine volume of 30 to 60 ml is required for accurate testing. Collecting a small amount like 5 to 10 ml may lead to inaccurate results due to insufficient sample size. It is crucial to follow proper collection techniques, such as discarding the first flow of urine, performing perineal care, and collecting an adequate volume, to ensure reliable test results.
5. The nurse writes a problem of “potential for complication related to ovarian hyperstimulation” for a client who is taking clomiphene (Clomid), an ovarian stimulant. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?
- A. Instruct the client to delay intercourse until menses
- B. Schedule the client for frequent pelvic sonograms
- C. Explain that the infusion therapy will take 21 days
- D. Discuss that this may cause an ectopic pregnancy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Frequent pelvic sonograms help monitor for ovarian hyperstimulation, a serious potential side effect of clomiphene. Instructing the client to delay intercourse until menses (choice A) is not directly related to monitoring or managing ovarian hyperstimulation. Explaining the duration of infusion therapy (choice C) is not relevant to the potential complication of ovarian hyperstimulation. Discussing the risk of ectopic pregnancy (choice D) is important but not the most appropriate intervention for managing ovarian hyperstimulation.